Re: spelling of diphthongs (again)
- j 'mach' wust wrote:
> > So: if "boY" is different from "Yes" (which it is), and _Iorhael_<<<<<_Spelled_ the same way, yes...but _maybe_ in Sindarin (as in all
> > identical to "Yes" (which it is), then I think _oE, aE_ cannot be
> > the same as "Iorhael".
> However, they actually are the same in DTS 49.
living languages), not _everything_ that's spelled identically is
necessarily pronounced exactly the same way? I can only ask you
again: would you really pronounce the _i_ in _Iorhael_ exactly like
the _e_ in _Iorhael_? Personally, I find that hard to do. I also seem
to recall (sorry that I can't think of the exact source) that Tolkien
himself wrote something to the effect that diphthongs in -e are
pronounced similar to those in -i, only that instead of pronouncing a
quick "i" after the initial sound (as in "ai"), one should try to
pronounce a quick "e"--doesn't sound like the /j/ of "yes" (a
palatal) to me. :)>>>>>
>In "top-bottom" modes, any letter that is used for initial glides is<<<<<Hm. That sounds slightly but significantly different from your
>also used as a second element of diphthong.
previous wording, which left me with the impression that any letter
that is used for initial glides in TB modes is used for the _exact
same_ (or corresponding) sound as a second element of a diphthong.
The way you put it now, I have no problem with the statement.>>>>>