Re: general use
- Gildor Inglorion wrote:
> now this might sound like a newbie question, but whatI think talking of a _general use mode_ is misdirecting, and I'd
> is this general use mode?
> as i have seen, Tolkien used it, but not in the
> context of the Arda history, rather than personal
rather just call it the 'general use'. It is explicitly placed within
an Arda history context by the quote "general use (applicable to both
S and Q) of the period of the tale" (DTS 58 - The Howlett Rivendell
Since it's used for English as well (the two transcriptions of
_Rivendell_), we can identify the 'general use' of the tengwar with
the 'Westron mode' known from app. E. I prefer the name 'general use'
to the name 'Westron mode' since this use is attested for English,
Sindarin, Quenya, and Black Speech, but not for Westron.
> how can we fit it into? when was it implemented and byThere was a discussion about that almost a year ago (in the threads
> whom? Eldar of Valinor, or Gondor loremasters?
"questions on a passage in XII" beginning with elfscript #3474 and
"Sauron and the mode on the One Ring" beginning with elfscript #3504).
The origins we talked about were:
* Noldorin loremasters for mannish tongues in the First Age;
* Númenorian loremasters for their own tongue in early Second Age;
* less likely: Noldorin lormasters for Valarin (?) before the exile.
A special problem is how Sauron could have learned the same mode:
* From corrupted Númenorian in the early Second Age;
* from elves in the First Age;
* devised by himself (after knowing the tengwar from elves in the
j. 'mach' wust
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