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[elfscript] R-rule for Full Mode of Gondor (King's Letter)?

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  • Dave
    Well, here I m back to bother you again...thanks for your patience! Going through our previous correspondence, I noticed that with regard to the R-rule in the
    Message 1 of 1 , Oct 26, 2004
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      Well, here I'm back to bother you again...thanks for your patience!

      Going through our previous correspondence, I noticed that with regard to the R-rule in the "King's Letter", we had only touched on the English mode employed in the three versions (pronounced "r" = rómen, dropped "r" = óre, as you put it in a nutshell), and the Mode of Gondor (generally [three exceptions], non-final "r" = rómen, final "r" = óre), which is used for the Sindarin part in the third copy.

      But no clear pattern seems to emerge for the Full Mode of Gondor that is used for the Sindarin part of copies 1 (SD) and 2 (AI).
      If I am not mistaken, "r" occurs 52 times in the first copy, of which four are spelled with rómen, three of them medially before a vowel (_edregol_, first and third occurrence of _Meril_) and one final (_Echuir_). All other "r"-sounds are spelled with óre.

      In the second copy (somewhat shorter, since it does not have the final sentence [that includes the letter's date and thus the word _Echuir_] of the first copy), there are I believe 46 occurrences of "r", and only one (!) is spelled with rómen, _Drannail_.
      If one took nothing but sheer statistics into account, one could be tempted to conclude that in this mode, "r" is always (or usually) represented by óre, and consider the the five (of a total 98!) occurrences of rómen as "accidents" or "mistakes".
      But is it that simple? Chris McKay in his description of the Full Mode of Gondor (Tengwar Textbook) states laconically that for "r", "there is no pattern as to which tengwa is used" and adds that "Tolkien seems to have used whichever he thought looked better in the word." While the latter statement _could_ certainly be true, one wonders if the professor was truly driven by aesthetic considerations here. To me, it sounds somewhat unlikely. Yet the few occurrences of rómen vs. óre do appear arbitrary.

      Do you have any explanation (or a conjecture) as to what Tolkien's ideas might have been here? Can any kind of R-rule be formulated for the Full Mode of Gondor?


      ----- Original Message -----
      From: j_mach_wust
      To: elfscript@yahoogroups.com
      Sent: Tuesday, October 26, 2004 2:54 PM
      Subject: [elfscript] Re: spelling of u/w in English modes [was: How do I write "I"]

      Dave wrote:
      > > I think both features, the single 'l' and the missing 'e' show us
      > > that these samples are to be understood as samples of phonemic
      > > English tehtar modes. The 'missing e' is of especial interest,
      > > since in other phonemic English modes (both in the very well
      > > attested full writing modes and in the few words of tehtar modes,
      > > that is, in the word "Britain" /britn/ in DTS 39), syllabic
      > > consonants like the 'n' in /rivndel/ are normally marked with a
      > > dot below (e.g. DTS 23 "welcome" /welkm/, "little" /litl/).
      > So this is the only known example of "missing" (intended or not)
      > dots under syllabic consonants, I gather?

      If I remember correctly. Unless you count the samples in DTS 17, 18,
      23 that lack the dot below, but I think these are mistakes.

      j. 'mach' wust

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