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97Re: [elfscript] Aníron teithad i•thîw edhellin.

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  • Angasule
    Dec 30, 2000
      DDanielA@... wrote:
      > My chief interest is in Sindarin, but I have a question concerning
      > Quenya. In Appendix E, JRRT states, "This [th] had become in Quenya
      > spoken s, though still written with a different letter." We are led to
      > believe that this letter was thúle/súle. I was under the impression
      > that words spelt with an "s" in Quenya that had its cognate with "th"
      > in
      > Sindarin would spelt with súle in its tengwar rendering, but in
      > Tolkien's "Namárië" calligraphy pieces in RGEO we find
      > "sindanóriello" and "hísië" with silme where I would expect
      > súle. I have two theories:
      > 1.) Quenya was no longer a native language to anyone in Middle Earth
      > (except Galadriel [?], being the last of the Noldorin exiles), and
      > scribes automatically wrote a silme to represent the "s" sound as was
      > found in their own native modes.
      > Or:
      > 2.) Professor Tolkien changed his own rules almost as much as he
      > followed them and ignored the distinction between súle and silme!
      > What does anyone else think about this? Or am I wrong in thinking
      > that the words in question would be written with súle?
      > —Danny Andriës.
      Those words are written with sule, yes, at least that's the normal
      usage AFAIK, I guess the reason silme is used in namarie it's because of
      (1) or because Tolkien just decided not to use it or forgot (unlikely,
      I'd say), I don't think he'd have just discarded the whole silme/sule
      thing, being already printed in lotr. I guess modern writers can decide
      whether to use silme or sule, I think using sule looks better, same with
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