956Re: the use of tengwa 'anna'
- Jun 7, 2002--- In elfscript@y..., "Arden R. Smith" <erilaz@e...> wrote:
>Do you mean that Tolkien actually stated that the word _anna_ was from
> The use of this letter, however, does have a phonological basis. It
> represents a lost  (yogh, representing a voiced velar fricative)
> at the beginning of the word _anna_. Such an etymology is of course
> incompatible with the derivation from ANA(1)- that we find in the
> "Etymologies," but Tolkien was constantly tinkering with his
another root/stem than that sated to be ANA(1) in Etymologies? Such as
HAN- or 3AN-.
Eldar thought that the "a" in anna was a "racine tengwe" and "For this
purpuse it was not necessary to distinguish between true 'loss' and
'omission'". The "meaning" of the tengwa, "gift", is also appropriate
for its use.
> >But I cannot figure out how the word _anna_ -- as the name of thatIt that particular mode (_wilya_ = nil < ) what was then the use of
> >tengwar -- could be written according to the "original" Quenya mode
> >(original inside the fictional time) with an <anna>.
> >Did Tolkien write in tengwar the Word _anna_ as <anna> + <"double"
> >nmen>? Or in any other way, e.g. not using <anna> at all?
> To the best of my knowledge, there is no example of the word _anna_
> actually written by Tolkien with the letter _anna_. There are,
> however, examples using _wilya_ (in a mode in which that letter had
> the function of _anna_, representing nil < ) and also an example
> using the short carrier.
_anna_ may I ask?
As for the use of the short carrier in <anna>, you mean that anna was
written begining with a <short carrier> used as a sign for nil <  ?
e.g. <short carrier> + a-tehta + <númen/twice> + a-tehta.
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