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956Re: the use of tengwa 'anna'

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  • laurifindil
    Jun 7, 2002
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      --- In elfscript@y..., "Arden R. Smith" <erilaz@e...> wrote:
      >

      <snip>

      >
      > The use of this letter, however, does have a phonological basis. It
      > represents a lost [3] (yogh, representing a voiced velar fricative)
      > at the beginning of the word _anna_. Such an etymology is of course
      > incompatible with the derivation from ANA(1)- that we find in the
      > "Etymologies," but Tolkien was constantly tinkering with his
      > languages.

      Do you mean that Tolkien actually stated that the word _anna_ was from
      another root/stem than that sated to be ANA(1) in Etymologies? Such as
      HAN- or 3AN-.

      Eldar thought that the "a" in anna was a "racine tengwe" and "For this
      purpuse it was not necessary to distinguish between true 'loss' and
      'omission'". The "meaning" of the tengwa, "gift", is also appropriate
      for its use.

      > >But I cannot figure out how the word _anna_ -- as the name of that
      > >tengwar -- could be written according to the "original" Quenya mode
      > >(original inside the fictional time) with an <anna>.
      > >
      > >Did Tolkien write in tengwar the Word _anna_ as <anna> + <"double"
      > >nœmen>? Or in any other way, e.g. not using <anna> at all?
      >
      > To the best of my knowledge, there is no example of the word _anna_
      > actually written by Tolkien with the letter _anna_. There are,
      > however, examples using _wilya_ (in a mode in which that letter had
      > the function of _anna_, representing nil < [3]) and also an example
      > using the short carrier.

      It that particular mode (_wilya_ = nil < [3]) what was then the use of
      _anna_ may I ask?

      As for the use of the short carrier in <anna>, you mean that anna was
      written begining with a <short carrier> used as a sign for nil < [3] ?
      e.g. <short carrier> + a-tehta + <númen/twice> + a-tehta.
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