5672Re: origin of tehtar-Sindarin mode
- Aug 30 11:51 PM--- In firstname.lastname@example.org, Lakis Lalakis <avalon@...> wrote:
>Yes, but the wording "reached the stage of full alphabetic
> Måns Björkman wrote:
> > One point at which Torsten clearly is correct, however, is the
> > revision of just how old "full writing" was. The description in
> > Appendix E, where the writing is said to have reached the stage of
> > "full alphabetic development", is hard to reconcile with that in
> > _Quendi and Eldar_, where Feanor himself constructed a mode of "full
> > writing".
> But 'the phrase' doesn't exclude the existence of ancient alphabetic
> systems either. We have the Mode of Beleriand, implying First Age, in
> LOTR. The evolution to alphabetic systems could have happened any time
> earlier and we can see that, 'now' in the Third Age (where indeed more
> newer alphabetic modes have also been invented)
development" seems to me to exclude the possibility that "full
writing" was part of Feanor's original design -- as _Quendi and Eldar_
> > As for Frodo not being able to read the inscription on the doors ofYes, I remember that; it was quite funny, actually. The letters were
> > Moria, it seems reasonable to assume that the modes Frodo would be
> > familiar with were those used in the King's Letter: the Sindarin
> > tehta-mode -- AKA the "general use" -- and the "Later or Westron
> > Convention" (as it is called in _Pictures_). With those two modes in
> > mind, it is not surprising that the mode of Beleriand would be hard to
> > read.
> There was a tengwar webpage years ago, about 1998 or something. It
> belonged to someone 'Masi'. It explored the possibilities of how Frodo
> could have read the Gate. Anyone remembers it?
transcribed with the sound values of the "Westron convention". Of
course, the result was unintelligible.
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