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4947Re: spelling of diphthongs (again)

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  • hisilome
    Oct 4, 2005
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      j 'mach' wust wrote:
      > > So: if "boY" is different from "Yes" (which it is), and _Iorhael_
      > > identical to "Yes" (which it is), then I think _oE, aE_ cannot be
      > > the same as "Iorhael".
      > >
      > However, they actually are the same in DTS 49.

      <<<<<_Spelled_ the same way, yes...but _maybe_ in Sindarin (as in all
      living languages), not _everything_ that's spelled identically is
      necessarily pronounced exactly the same way? I can only ask you
      again: would you really pronounce the _i_ in _Iorhael_ exactly like
      the _e_ in _Iorhael_? Personally, I find that hard to do. I also seem
      to recall (sorry that I can't think of the exact source) that Tolkien
      himself wrote something to the effect that diphthongs in -e are
      pronounced similar to those in -i, only that instead of pronouncing a
      quick "i" after the initial sound (as in "ai"), one should try to
      pronounce a quick "e"--doesn't sound like the /j/ of "yes" (a
      palatal) to me. :)>>>>>

      >In "top-bottom" modes, any letter that is used for initial glides is
      >also used as a second element of diphthong.

      <<<<<Hm. That sounds slightly but significantly different from your
      previous wording, which left me with the impression that any letter
      that is used for initial glides in TB modes is used for the _exact
      same_ (or corresponding) sound as a second element of a diphthong.
      The way you put it now, I have no problem with the statement.>>>>>


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