4946Re: spelling of diphthongs (again)
- Oct 4, 2005Dave Hisilome wrote:
> --- In email@example.com, "j_mach_wust" <j_mach_wust@y...>...
> > What messes things up is the transcription into LatinHowever small these differences are or not, they are significative.
> > letters that doesn't represent all the yanta letters in the same
> > way: Initial yanta is represented by i, but
> > second-part-of-diphthong yanta is represented by e. Don't tell me
> > these are different sounds. The /j/ in the word yes isn't
> > identical to the /j/ in the word boy either.
> <<<<<No, of course they are different.>>>>>
> <<<<<Yes, but _ai_ and _ui_ are spelled with anna. And I don't know
> if the second part of _ae_ and _ai_ are indeed identical to initial
> yanta as in _iorhael_ etc. Aren't the second sounds, the "glides",
> in all the four above diphthongs all rather similar to the sound
> represented by "y" in "boy", since you bring up that example?
> Tolkien himself somewhere stated, I think, that the difference
> between _ae_ and _ai_ in Sindarin was rather small. So why use anna
> in _ai_ and _ui_ and not yanta as well?
Sindarin /ae/ and /ai/ are different phonemes, since a minimal pair of
words may differ only in this sound (I don't know whether we know
acual minimal pairs).
> I don't think the secondHowever, they actually are the same in DTS 49.
> parts of _ai, ui_ correspond anymore to the "j" in "yes" (and thus
> the initial sound of _iorhael_) than the second parts of _ae, oe_,
> so Sindarin spelling is inconsistent in itself, not only in its
> So: if "boY" is different from "Yes" (which it is), and _Iorhael_ is
> identical to "Yes" (which it is), then I think _oE, aE_ cannot be
> the same as "Iorhael".
In "top-bottom" modes, any letter that is used for initial glides is
also used as a second element of diphthong.
j. 'mach' wust
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