RE: [elfling-d] The "_Merin_ Sentence" (was Re: Helge's revised Quenya course)
>> But there are numerous languages that do not [use a verb meaning[Carl:]
>> 'possess'] in case of sentient beings because they do not have it
>> altogether. The suggestion was that Quenya is the case.
> Whether or not that was Tolkien's intention at that specific time, itA language can have a verb meaning 'possess' and still not use it to
> is inarguable that Quenya _did_ at other times have a means to express
> possession or ownership: there is Q _harya-_ 'possess' right there in
express possesion routinely. Our own (mine and Boris') native Russian is
an example - we have _imet'_ "to have", _obladat'_ "possess", but an "I
have" construction is expressed by a periphrastic construction.
Pavel Iosad pavel_iosad@...
Is mall a mharcaicheas am fear a bheachdaicheas