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[tied] Re: Final voicing (3)

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  • stlatos
    ... No, it doesn t happen in Sanskrit. That s why I said *-dGwoi Skt -dhve wouldn t work. The ability of the middle/passive participle to replace the 2nd
    Message 1 of 17 , Jan 2, 2008
      --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "afyangh" <fournet.arnaud@...> wrote:
      >
      > > > > > *-(o)-mV(s)-(dG)-ai
      > > > > > *-(o)-dGw-oi
      > > > > I don't understand what these forms stand for
      > > > > especially -dGw- ??
      > > >
      > > > The idea is that, in some languages at least, dG > dH
      > >
      > > It does, but as seen in *dGaxY+ / *dGay+ 'divide' not in those which
      > > would allow the above derivation to work.
      > ======
      > Arnaud
      > I suppose "some languages" allowing dG > dH amounts to only sanscrit !?

      No, it doesn't happen in Sanskrit. That's why I said *-dGwoi > Skt
      -dhve wouldn't work.

      The ability of the middle/passive participle to replace the 2nd
      plural (like Latin -mini:) makes a derivation along the lines of the
      rest of the paradigm unnecessary and unlikely to begin with.
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