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Re: [tied] Must sound change be linguistically motivated?

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  • mkelkar2003
    ... might lie ... accused ... Would climate have something to do with it? Colder climates may require more effort to pronunce certain sounds thus compelling
    Message 1 of 37 , Dec 31, 2005
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      --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@m...>
      wrote:
      >
      >
      >
      >
      > ----- Original Message -----
      > From: "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@c...>
      > To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
      > Sent: Saturday, December 31, 2005 3:56 PM
      > Subject: [tied] Must sound change be linguistically motivated?
      >
      >
      > > Thanks to P. Manansala for the Abstract.
      > >
      > > M. Kelkar
      > >
      > >
      > > Must sound change be linguistically motivated?
      > >
      > > Author: Blust, Robert A.1
      > >
      > > Source: Diachronica, Volume 22, Number 2, 2005, pp. 219-269(51)
      > >
      > > Publisher: John Benjamins Publishing Company
      > >
      > > Abstract:
      > >
      > > A number of well-documented sound changes in Austronesian languages do
      > > not appear to be either phonetically or phonologically motivated.
      > > Although it is possible that some of these changes involved
      > > intermediate steps for which we have no direct documentation, the
      > > assumption that this was always the case appears arbitrary, and is in
      > > violation of Occam's Razor. These data thus raise the question whether
      > > sound change must be phonetically motivated, as assumed by the
      > > Neogrammarians, or even linguistically motivated, as assumed by
      > > virtually all working historical linguists.
      >
      > ***
      > Patrick:
      >
      > In the past, I innocently suggested that a part of the explanation
      might lie
      > in actual physical changes in the architecture of the mouth, and was
      accused
      > of 'racism', which is an easy out for a difficult question.
      >
      > ***
      >
      Would climate have something to do with it? Colder climates may
      require more effort to pronunce certain sounds thus compelling their
      speakers to swith to other "easier" sounds.

      I have observed that many maestors of North Indian classical music
      consistently mispronunce rishab as rikhab, perhaps due to a lack of
      formal education, or perhaps because they habitually talk while
      chewing a mouthful of betel nut leaves.

      Could it be possible to explain the difference between snusha and
      snokha without reconstrucing another word?

      M. Kelkar
    • tgpedersen
      the tapping or flapping of intervocalic /t/ and /d/ ... and in Danish (which makes me feel at home in American English). Or rather, intervocalic -t-
      Message 37 of 37 , Jan 5, 2006
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        the "tapping" or "flapping" of intervocalic /t/ and /d/
        > in North American and Australian Englishes)
        and in Danish (which makes me feel at home in American English). Or
        rather, intervocalic -t- > voiceless -d- > flapped -d-.

        Torsten
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