71599Re: [tied] Why there is t- in German tausend "thousand"?
- Nov 14, 2013At 7:33:31 PM on Wednesday, November 13, 2013,
> 2013/11/14, gprosti <gprosti@...>:English </i:/conomics>~</ε/conomics>, </i:/ther>~</aɪ/ther>,
>> --- In firstname.lastname@example.org, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
>> <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:
>>> 2013/11/13, gprosti <gprosti@...>:
>>>> The question is *how* statistically probable it is that
>>>> two words with the same meaning, which share five
>>>> phonemes in the same sequence, are in fact two
>>>> completely (historically) separate forms.
>>> *Bhr.: 100% probable.
>> It's 100% probable -- i.e., physically or logically
>> necessary -- that two semantically matching words with a
>> long, matching sequence of phonemes, but one non-matching
>> phoneme, must have no historical affinity whatsoever?
> *Bhr.: if they irreducibly differ even in just one
> phoneme in the root, especially word-initially, they ARE
> different by definition
<hoofs>~<hooves>, <r/u:/te>~<r/aʊ/te>, <r/u:t/>~<r/ʊ/t>,
>> Even if historical affinity doesn't include these cases,One can’t, with complete certainty. And they are certainly
>> the probability is still not 100%, because the laws (=
>> tendencies) of sound change are not laws of mathematics
>> or physics.
> *Bhr.: they are logical laws, otherwise one could not
> demonstrate whether a given etymological hypothesis is
> correct or not
not logical laws, unless you mean only that they are
reasonable, in which case your ‘otherwise ...’ is a non
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