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71590Re: [tied] Why there is t- in German tausend "thousand"?

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  • gprosti
    Nov 13, 2013
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      --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:
      >
      > 2013/11/13, gprosti <gprosti@...>:
      > >
      > >
      > > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
      > > <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@> wrote:
      > >>
      > >> 2013/11/13, gprosti <gprosti@>:
      > >> >
      > >> >
      > >> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy
      > >> > <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@> wrote:
      > >> >>
      >
      > *Bhr.: What I meant by "chance" is:
      > 1) every language has different words and these differ because they
      > have different phonemes
      > 2) statistically, some couples of words differ by just one phoneme
      > 3) it's statistically possible that some of these (words differing by
      > a singole phoneme) have - by chance - the same meaning


      The question is *how* statistically probable it is that two words with the same meaning, which share five phonemes in the same sequence, are in fact two completely (historically) separate forms.

      >
      > Maybe You mean an *assimilation*, since the OHG term is du^sunt,
      > thu^sunt (Tausend is in fact [t̺ʰaʊ̯zn̩t]);

      Yes, that's what I should have said (thanks).

      in this case, on the other
      > side, I'd expect the same assimilation in diot 'folk', but I see
      > nothing like that
      >

      Long-distance assimilation/dissimilation are examples of processes that don't necessarily spread through the whole lexical inventory of a language (in fact, it may be the norm for them to be sporadic).

      Haplology is a similar type of process: e.g., standard Spanish shows the simplification of *tenisista to "tenista", but no haplology of "narcisista" to *narcista.
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