Referring to my earlier post and the thread discussed there I would like
point out a verse that just pomped out from the text: Luke 4:44 "he kept on
preaching in the synagogues of Judea." Why Judea, although Jesus is in Lukan
context clearly preaching in Galilee? Some manuscripts read *Galilee* here
correcting thus Lukan geography. It looks like Luke means by Judea all the
area inhabited by Jews. Writing from Galilee somewhere far outside Palestine
it is understandable that he uses Judea for all the country of the Jews.
This implicates that there perhaps was not such a sharp distinction between
Galileans and Judeans as some scholars have thought. Do we have other
evidence that Galilee was thought to be part of Judea? I remember there is
one in Eusebius when he wrote on "Nazareth and other Judean villages" or
something like that in Church History, but this is quite late.
Dr. Sakari Häkkinen
Diocese of Kuopio, Finland