--- Steve Black wrote:
> A fairly straight forward suggestion (re: 1Cor15:32) ... is that
> Paul was speaking figuratively when using the word "beast". This
> is a typical Pauline use of rhetoric. Acts of Paul might have
> misunderstood this as literal (not unlike ourselves???), and
> constructed a whole story around it. No way to prove any of this,
> but this seems very reasonable to me!
Me too (and I apologize for using the word 'lion', which is not in
the text), but now two possible avenues for supporting this: (1) if
Paul had in mind some personal conflict in which he had been involved
in Ephesus, it should be possible to point to a specific incident,
or (2) if he had in mind that Ephesus was generally known for its
arena "games" involving "beasts" (so that he was arguing via the
counter-factual "If I were one of those who fight with beasts in
Ephesus, what do I gain if there's no resurrection?"), again it
ought to be possible to find something in the historical record.