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[XTalk] Re: Jesus, John and History

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  • Liz Fried
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    Message 1 of 23 , Jun 30, 1999
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      > -----Original Message-----
      > From: miser17@... [mailto:miser17@...]
      >
      > We can, I think, fathom what Luke understood the passage to mean.
      >
      > 18"The Spirit of the Lord is on me, because he has anointed me
      > to preach good news to the poor. He has sent
      > me to proclaim freedom for the prisoners and recovery of sight
      > for the blind, to release the oppressed, to proclaim the year of
      > the Lord's favor." [ and the day of vengeance of our God ]
      >
      >
      > Acts 10:36-38
      > You know the message God sent to the people of Israel,
      > telling the good news of peace through Jesus
      > Christ, who is Lord of all.
      > You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in
      > Galilee after the baptism that John preached--
      > how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and
      > power, and how he went around doing good
      > and healing all who were under the power of the devil,
      > because God was with him.
      >
      > If we take the Acts passage as Luke's summary of Luke's gospel
      > story, then the "freedom for prisoners" and "release of the
      > oppressed" have to do with "healing all who were under the
      > power of the devil" in Luke's exegesis. Since Jesus never
      > released any slave, jailed person or person oppressed by political
      > power, but did exorcise etc. it seems impossible to think
      > that Luke understands Isaiah to be speaking about anything
      > like a Jubilee release of prisoners and slaves. The year of
      > the Lord's favor would be, then, the healing-exorcising ministry
      > of Jesus.

      Fascinating! I dig it!

      >
      > Is there anything in Isaiah that would lead someone who is
      > not a Biblical Scholar to see "Jubilee year" in Isaiah's
      > remarks? I just read the stuff... I don't see Jubilee year in it at
      > all. I must be missing something.

      The word you translate "liberty" above is "deror". This word is the word I
      explained previously as being from the Akkadian anduarum. It really means,
      let's now go back to the status quo ante. It is what is being proclaimed in
      Lev. 25:10. In Lev. 25:10 we have "qera'tem deror ba'aretz." Declare an
      anduarum in the land. This is the same phrase used in Isa. 61:1 leqro'
      leshvuiim deror. Declare to captives an anduarum. In Lev. 25:10ff, the
      meaning of deror is explained: viz, each person is to return to his
      ancestral lands. That is what is being declared in Isaiah 61: This is the
      time when each person is to return to his ancestral lands, i.e, to go home.

      The LXX translation of deror by aphesin is no doubt the root of the problem.
      I guess it's good they did tho, since it's on our liberty bell. Our deror
      bell. If we were really to proclaim deror in this country we'd have to give
      all this land back to the Indians.

      The word for return in Lev. 25:10, btw, is shuv, often, as has been
      mentioned, translated repentance, but more often as Jim mentioned, having
      nothing to do with repentence. An actual return is being described in Isaiah
      61, and in Deutero Isaiah in general.



      Best,

      Liz

      Lisbeth S. Fried
      Department of Hebrew and Judaic Studies
      New York University
      51 Washington Sq. S.
      New York, NY 10012
      lqf9256@...
      lizfried@...


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