I have looked through the old Crosstalk's postings on Nazareth and
the research on the alleged existence of that town at the time of Jesus.
I write this sentence in hopes that we don't have to revisit every detail
that has already been written. It was a long and tortured discussion.
Perhaps I missed something. Nowhere did I find a discussion of
how possible or impossible that Jesus "of" "Nazar---", or his
"Nazar----enes" might have to do with the Greek name for the
Hebrew word, Chinnereth.
Below is a fascinating definition from the Easton Bible Dictionary:
Easton's Bible Dictionary
Gennesaret: a garden of riches. (1.) A town of
Chinnereth (Josh. 19:35), sometimes in the plural form
(11:2). In later times the name was gradually changed
to Genezar and
Gennesaret (Luke 5:1). This city stood on the western
shore of the lake
to which it gave its name. No trace of it remains. The
Gennesaret has been called, from its fertility and
beauty, "the Paradise
of Galilee." It is now called el-Ghuweir.
(2.) The Lake of Gennesaret, the Grecized form of
(q.v.). (See GALILEE, SEA OF ¯T0001418.)
This, in connection with the a pre-Jesus Jewish sect called the "nazarenes"
(spelling uncertain, depending upon the ancient writer), would make it at
least feasible that what we now call Nazareth is NOT the Nazareth of
Jesus's home town. And that a shoreline community like the above
referenced "Gennesaret", perhaps THE "paradise" of Jesus' adult days,
would fit the bill in many ways.
While those who believe in the inerrancy of the Bible would certainly have
some reasons to refute this possibility. But I would be interested in
from more "dry eyed" academics why we should (or shouldn't) ignore this