[Xtalk] Re: Essenes and Qumran
- Lewis Reich wrote:
>Some of the arguments I have seen regarding the Semitic etymology of
> On 30 May 99, at 14:29, Michael T. MacDonell wrote:
> > Dear Moshe:
> > At 05:04 PM 5/30/99 +0000,Moshe Shulman wrote:
> > >if we take Pharisees and Sadducees as examples, their Hebrew underlying
> > >names do not sound the same (Perushim, Tzadokim) The transliterations to
> > >Greek seem to be more distant.
> > This is an interesting observation. Can you suppply me with a reference
> > for that?
> I don't know; Pharisees does seem a jump from Perushim, but
> Sadducees seems quite close to Tzdukim, at least to me (after
> allowing from the change from Tz to S).
Greek renderings, such as Essenes, seem to assume that there were
certain phonetic and orthographic rules, therefore "Essenoi couldn't
be from Osay haTorah because......or couldn't be from Assaya because...
I can see several things influencing how a semitic word is transmitted
by a Greek author to cause confusion. First, if Aramaic, wouldn't it be
true that a Greek rendering of a Galilean Aramaic word would be spelled
differently than a Judean Aramaic word? The Semitic dialect, therefore,
would make a difference. Would "Qumran Hebrew" be pronounced similarly
to Hebrew in other social pockets where Hebrew was used?
The skill of the author of the Greek document. Some of the Greek
of the NT is very ungrammatical. Is it unreasonable to assume that
a primarily semitic speaking author, writing in Greek, would be
a bad Greek speller? Even one of the greek speaking scribes of the
Codex Sinaiticus was a poor speller.
For this reason, it is difficult for me to accept the etymological
arguments that say "a het would be rendered in such a way in Greek,"
or a glottal, or pharyngeal fricative, etc, etc. It seems to me a wide
range of possibilities would be normal.
taybutheh d'maran yeshua masheecha am kulkon
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