RE: [XTalk] Re: Galilee and Judah
- Thanks to Mark (previous email) and David (below) for their helpful comments.
To add another complexity regarding the scope of who was Jewish, I
suspect that the scope differed depending on whether or not you were
a resident of Judea. That is, Judeans might have reserved that label
for themselves, especially before 70 AD (viz. John 1:46), whereas
Samaritans and Galileans might have chosen to identify themselves as
Ioudaioi in the larger sense.
Also, would Antipas have used the term Ioudaioi in reference to his
Is Josephus ambiguous in the same way?
Northern Arizona University
At 09:54 AM 4/9/2012, David Mealand wrote:
>I think the relation between Galilee and Judah changed[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
>several times. Galilee was annexed by Judah at least
>by the time of Alexander Jannaeus. After the end of the
>Hasmonaean rule Herod ruled the whole territory as a
>client king subordinate to Rome. After his death Galilee
>was split off again, and given to Antipas as part of his tetrarchy.
>So around 4 BCE to 41 CE Galilee was separately ruled, as were
>some other areas.
>Later on Herod Agrippa was well in, first with Gaius, then
>with Claudius, and was given, first one of the tetrarchies
>then Galilee, then Judaea and Samaria. But when Herod Agrippa
>died Galilee went under direct Roman rule along with much of
>the rest, though later again (c.61 CE) his son Agrippa II did
>get some of Galilee.
>So whether someone "should have" described Galilee as part of Judah
>would depend partly on the time written about, and partly on the
>time of writing, in order to be correct politically (as opposed to
>being politically correct). On the other hand popular usage
>might have been looser, but given the shifting pattern above
>it might be hard to decide if someone is being loose, or being
>correct either with reference to their own period, or to the period
>So all this may clarify some things but make others more murky.
>David Mealand, University of Edinburgh
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