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RE: [XTalk] Re: Easter Greeting

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  • Bob Schacht
    ... Yes, I think you & John are right; I was conflating the spread of the good news during Jesus lifetime with what happened after his ascension. That is a
    Message 1 of 11 , Apr 9 7:49 AM
      At 07:20 AM 4/9/2012, Matson, Mark (Academic) wrote:
      >Yes, John has it right I think. This is meant to be a summary of
      >"proclamation of the word", (by which I think Luke means activity of
      >Jesus' ministry -- not so much his preaching as the totality of his
      >ministry is "the good news of peace / the message (rhma)), which
      >began after John's baptism in Galilee and proceeded to the "entire
      >region of Judea".

      Yes, I think you & John are right; I was conflating the spread of the
      good news during Jesus' lifetime with what happened after his
      ascension. That is a helpful distinction, and I'm sorry that I missed it.

      > Here Judea I think might mean the area inhabited by the "jews"
      > (just like John has Ioudaioi in outside of Judea as well).

      I was thinking of this as well. But was John really referring to Jews
      in general, or was he sometimes quite intentionally restricting his
      focus to the inhabitants of the Roman province of Judea? This is an
      important distinction, because understanding Ioudaioi everywhere in
      GJohn as Jews in general, rather than inhabitants of Judea, has been
      the basis of Christian Jew-bashing for centuries. But I suppose this
      takes us beyond the scope of this list.

      > So it is somewhat of a synechdoche, thus the "whole of Judea" is
      > simply a figure of speech.
      >
      >I am interested in the way Luke tells the story in a way that seems
      >to implicate John's emphasis on Judea, another John-Luke point in
      >common. Of course Luke's travel narrative has no specific
      >geographical points, and might be assumed by Luke to include "all of Judea".

      An interesting point. Thanks.

      Bob Schacht
      Northern Arizona University

      [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
    • David Mealand
      I think the relation between Galilee and Judah changed several times. Galilee was annexed by Judah at least by the time of Alexander Jannaeus. After the end
      Message 2 of 11 , Apr 9 9:54 AM
        I think the relation between Galilee and Judah changed
        several times. Galilee was annexed by Judah at least
        by the time of Alexander Jannaeus. After the end of the
        Hasmonaean rule Herod ruled the whole territory as a
        client king subordinate to Rome. After his death Galilee
        was split off again, and given to Antipas as part of his tetrarchy.
        So around 4 BCE to 41 CE Galilee was separately ruled, as were
        some other areas.

        Later on Herod Agrippa was well in, first with Gaius, then
        with Claudius, and was given, first one of the tetrarchies
        then Galilee, then Judaea and Samaria. But when Herod Agrippa
        died Galilee went under direct Roman rule along with much of
        the rest, though later again (c.61 CE) his son Agrippa II did
        get some of Galilee.

        So whether someone "should have" described Galilee as part of Judah
        would depend partly on the time written about, and partly on the
        time of writing, in order to be correct politically (as opposed to
        being politically correct). On the other hand popular usage
        might have been looser, but given the shifting pattern above
        it might be hard to decide if someone is being loose, or being
        correct either with reference to their own period, or to the period
        described.

        So all this may clarify some things but make others more murky.

        David M.


        ---------
        David Mealand, University of Edinburgh


        --
        The University of Edinburgh is a charitable body, registered in
        Scotland, with registration number SC005336.
      • Bob Schacht
        Thanks to Mark (previous email) and David (below) for their helpful comments. To add another complexity regarding the scope of who was Jewish, I suspect that
        Message 3 of 11 , Apr 9 10:29 AM
          Thanks to Mark (previous email) and David (below) for their helpful comments.
          To add another complexity regarding the scope of who was Jewish, I
          suspect that the scope differed depending on whether or not you were
          a resident of Judea. That is, Judeans might have reserved that label
          for themselves, especially before 70 AD (viz. John 1:46), whereas
          Samaritans and Galileans might have chosen to identify themselves as
          Ioudaioi in the larger sense.

          Also, would Antipas have used the term Ioudaioi in reference to his
          own citizens?

          Is Josephus ambiguous in the same way?

          Bob Schacht
          Northern Arizona University

          At 09:54 AM 4/9/2012, David Mealand wrote:

          >I think the relation between Galilee and Judah changed
          >several times. Galilee was annexed by Judah at least
          >by the time of Alexander Jannaeus. After the end of the
          >Hasmonaean rule Herod ruled the whole territory as a
          >client king subordinate to Rome. After his death Galilee
          >was split off again, and given to Antipas as part of his tetrarchy.
          >So around 4 BCE to 41 CE Galilee was separately ruled, as were
          >some other areas.
          >
          >Later on Herod Agrippa was well in, first with Gaius, then
          >with Claudius, and was given, first one of the tetrarchies
          >then Galilee, then Judaea and Samaria. But when Herod Agrippa
          >died Galilee went under direct Roman rule along with much of
          >the rest, though later again (c.61 CE) his son Agrippa II did
          >get some of Galilee.
          >
          >So whether someone "should have" described Galilee as part of Judah
          >would depend partly on the time written about, and partly on the
          >time of writing, in order to be correct politically (as opposed to
          >being politically correct). On the other hand popular usage
          >might have been looser, but given the shifting pattern above
          >it might be hard to decide if someone is being loose, or being
          >correct either with reference to their own period, or to the period
          >described.
          >
          >So all this may clarify some things but make others more murky.
          >
          >David M.
          >
          >
          >---------
          >David Mealand, University of Edinburgh
          >
          >
          >--
          >The University of Edinburgh is a charitable body, registered in
          >Scotland, with registration number SC005336.
          >
          >
          >
          >
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