RE: [XTalk] Two questions related to Mark & Luke's trial scene
Your question is the grammatical difference? Both Mark and Luke use the same verb, perikaluptein... Mark as an infinitive and Luke as a participle. Mark adds an object to the verb... "covered his face". Luke has no modifier, so literally it is simply "when they covered him;" our translations conclude blindfold, which is probably a good guess as the the meaning.
I might simply note that the "covering" or blindfolding is not portrayed as part of the trial, but rather as part of the mocking that follows (it provides a basis for the taunt "prophecy: who is it that struck you?", which appears very odd in Matthew without any account of a covering of the eyes). The bigger difference I see is that Luke puts this taunting before a hearing with the elders; but then in Luke there really isn't a "trial" anyway is there? No testimony, no charge. It appears the decision is already made (just like in John, but John doesn't even bother describing any hearing befor the high priest at all).
I'm not aware of any reference to eyes covered before a jewish court... but then, as I said, these seem to be separate from any "trial" (if indeed there is even one being portrayed).
Mark A. Matson
From: email@example.com [firstname.lastname@example.org] On Behalf Of Ed [ebabinski2002@...]
Sent: Monday, March 12, 2012 3:09 PM
Subject: [XTalk] Two questions related to Mark & Luke's trial scene
If I may ask, what is the exact difference in the covering over Jesus' head/eyes in Mark and Luke? Mark says head covered, Luke says blindfold. Is there any definitive difference based on the Greek terms used?
And how common was it for the accused to have their head or eyes covered when brought before a Jewish court?
If know of any scholars or books that might contain the answers to such questions please let me know!
Thanks very much.