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SV: Jews? Re: [XTalk] The Jesus movement before the NT

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  • Thomas L. Thompson
    The region of Iturea in the Galilee, from Beth Shan (Scythopolis) to Giscala was, according to Josephus, annexed by Aristobolus in 104-103 BCE. The region was
    Message 1 of 4 , Dec 16, 2011
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      The region of Iturea in the Galilee, from Beth Shan (Scythopolis) to Giscala was, according to Josephus, annexed by Aristobolus in 104-103 BCE. The region was converted to Judaism by force. "Jewishness" and Judaism, in the wake of Hyrcanus's supersessionist expansion come to designate religious not geographic or political associations. That Luke appears to want to have his cake and eat it too is rooted in Old Testament messianic tropes. They are what bring Joseph and the shepherds to Matthew's Bethlehem.

      Sincerely,
      Thomas

      Thomas L. Thompson
      Professor emeritus, University of Copenhagen .

      ________________________________________
      Fra: crosstalk2@yahoogroups.com [crosstalk2@yahoogroups.com] På vegne af david cook [senor_aardvaark@...]
      Sendt: 16. december 2011 09:08
      Til: crosstalk2@yahoogroups.com
      Emne: RE: Jews? Re: [XTalk] The Jesus movement before the NT

      Surely, if we accept the "in the days of Herod" (i.e. the Great) dating, for teh sake of argument, then Gaileand Judaea are both in Herod's kingdom, a single jurisdiction. It's only when we correct the story - to make the census seem more `sensible' that we put it under Archelaus or after his fall. Or have I missed something obvious?
      David Cook




      To: crosstalk2@yahoogroups.com
      From: r_schacht@...
      Date: Thu, 15 Dec 2011 13:54:41 -0700
      Subject: Jews? Re: [XTalk] The Jesus movement before the NT






      At 08:38 AM 12/15/2011, Mark Goodacre wrote:
      >Well, as early as our evidence takes us for the Jesus movement, we have
      >Galileans like Peter being called Jew / Judean (Gal. 2.14); indeed, Paul's
      >argument apparently pivots around Peter (Cephas) being a Jew / Judean.
      > Cheers, Mark

      And also, considering the season, isn't this when we're told that
      when Mary was in a city of Galilee named Nazareth,
      (Luke 1:26), she was told that she would become pregnant by
      the Holy Spirit, etc. etc. But then Luke tells us (2:1-4) that they
      are supposed to go to Bethlehem to be enrolled.

      But at the time, Nazareth and Bethlehem were in two different
      political juristictions. How come Joe and Mary have to go to
      Bethlehem to be enrolled? Why couldn't Joe just go to Sepphoris to be
      enrolled, and identify his place of birth as Bethlehem? Are we
      dealing with some kind of cross-border collaboration? Something
      doesn't make sense here.

      Bob Schacht
      Flagstaff, AZ

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