Re. Mark 1,29, 2,15. Isn't it true that Mark likely told his story of Jesus
from the perspective of his own ecclesia around (70 or) 72? As I see it he
wants to explain and anchor the existence of their own
ecclesia-next-to-the-synagogue in their city (Rome? Alexandria?) in a
perceived original context of Jesus' ministry. In 1,29 the 'house' appears
to be located almost next door to the synagogue. This need not have been the
case in ecclesia's in the diaspora, but ideologically they were akin all
the same. In short, shouldn't we translate oikia in 1,29 and 2,15 against
its Hebrew/Aramaic background as 'house of learning' - bet ha-midrash?
Jesus had apparently been confronted in 1,23 by what Mark calls an un-kosher
spirit, upsetting the community in Capernaum. Aside from the question what
that exorcism was all about, it resulted in the fame of Jesus and his
'didache kaine' spreading quickly (1,27). The immediate result was the
formation of the 'house of Simon, Andrew, James and John' in Capernaum near
the 'sea'. Their house it seems to me was perceived as the nucleus of all
later ecclesia's in Rome, Alexandria, Antioch, Ephesus, Corinth etc. They
were situated somewhat like a Methodist meeting hall next to the Anglican.
Church. Isn't the same translation in order for 2,15? The 'house of
learning' of Levi of the mysterious 'Halphaios'?
----- Original Message -----
From: "Mark Goodacre" <Goodacre@...>
Sent: Thursday, March 02, 2006 9:04 PM
Subject: Re: [XTalk] Jesus the Homeowner?
> Thanks for drawing attention to that. One brief comment:
>> What Mark doesn't address, though, is the important text in both Matthew
>> (8:20) and Luke (9:58) which read
>> και λεγει αυτω ο ιησους αι αλωπεκες φωλεους εχουσιν και τα πετεινα του
>> ουρανου κατασκηνωσεις ο δε υιος του ανθρωπου ουκ εχει που την κεφαλην
>> To be sure, the last thing we want to do is harmonize. Mark knows
>> nothing of a saying of this kind. So why do Matthew and Luke make use of
>> it? And if they knew Mark, and used Mark, why did they ignore or bypass
> It's a good question; I suspect that the Matt. 8.20 // Luke 9.58
> logion is one of the reasons that we do not ask questions about where
> Jesus lived, and whether he had a house, especially given its context
> in Matthew, relatively early in the Gospel, in 8.20, before the
> reference to "the house" in Matt. 9.10. In other words we are seduced
> by the way that Matthew (and Luke for that matter) frame the issue.
> But let us say, for the sake of argument, that Jesus said something
> like the logion in Matt. 8.20 // Luke 9.58. (a) It could reflect a
> later, itinerant stage of his mission. (b) He might be saying
> something about the contrast between the habitual behaviour of the
> animals in contrast to the way that human beings behave. Either way,
> that saying does not negate the idea that Jesus' house in Capernaum is
> mentioned in Mark 2.
> With best wishes
> Mark Goodacre Goodacre@...
> Associate Professor
> Duke University
> Department of Religion
> 314 Gray Bldg./Box 90964
> Durham, NC 27708-0964 USA
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