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Re: [XTalk] Matthew's provenance

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  • Larry J. Swain
    ... of the ... speaking ... community. The ... claiming Hey! ... the ... 85ish CE., ... Jack, I ve always had problems with this interpretation of the
    Message 1 of 10 , Dec 20, 2003
      --- In crosstalk2@yahoogroups.com, "Jack Kilmon" <jkilmon@h...> wrote:
      >
      >
      > I also believe Antioch to be the provenance for GMt but I think one
      of the
      > alternatives might be that the author of Matthew was a Greek
      speaking
      > diaspora Jew who was a convert to the GENTILE Christiian
      community. The
      > gospel was attempting to entice other Jews to do the same by
      claiming "Hey!
      > This is a Jewish thing!" The context, and perhaps the stimulus for
      the
      > Gospel, may have been the institution of the Birkhat haMinim in
      85ish CE.,
      > the author becoming persona non grata at the synagogue.

      Jack,

      I've always had problems with this interpretation of the Birkhat
      haMinim. It isn't specific inits original form, and what Jewish
      Christian attending synagogue would hear it, or even recite it, and
      suddenly exclaim to himself, "Why, they're talking about me, I'm the
      heretic!" rather than give a resounding "AMEN" to the sentiments of
      the Birkhat? And what solid evidence is there that the Birkhat was
      used against Christians in the first two centuries of the era? I
      don't think there is any.

      Second, if "Matthew" is a Jew converted to Gentile Christianity, his
      gospel is full of pro-Jewish, anti-Gentile statements and views (as
      well as some pro-Gentile, anti-Jewish statments). These are hard to
      reconcile, particularly the so-called Great Commission (which is
      neither great nor a commission), with a Jew in a largely Gentile
      camp, but easier to reconcile with a Jewish CHristian in a Jewish
      Christian community that has included some Gentiles.

      Just my .02,

      Larry Swain
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