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Re: [XTalk] Eucharistic eating in John 6:51-58

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  • Jan Sammer
    From: Bob Schacht ... make ... If read my previous emails on this topic, you will notice that I have already drawn this same
    Message 1 of 1 , Aug 31, 2003
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      From: "Bob Schacht" <bobschacht@...>

      > Indeed, was the author's choice of hO TRWGWN influenced by a desire to
      make
      > the saying even more difficult to take?

      If read my previous emails on this topic, you will notice that I have
      already drawn this same conclusion (as I am sure others have done even
      before me; I have not systematically explored the published literature on
      this topic). A cruder word for eating is chosen to make the statement even
      less palatable to its hearers. It is chosen for emphasis as a result of the
      lack of comprehension of the milder, more usual term. It seems that the more
      emphatic and cruder term is intended to block attempts at evading the
      implications of the statement. As Jesus showed in the Feeding of the 5000,
      he will be the sole provider of sustenance for mankind in the new age whose
      arrival is presently dawning (the feeble attempt by the disciples at
      providing sustenance to the crowds with their own loaves is shown to be
      unnecessary and superfluous). This is the meaning of the miracle of the
      Feeding and it is the implication of many of the parables as well. And is
      not the passage we are discussing consequent on the implication of the
      Feedings? I still consider that the concept of the Age of Kronos propounded
      by the Eleatic Stranger in Plato's Politicus can be helpful in understanding
      this concept of Jesus as the harbinger and sustainer of a new world age, so
      incongruous to our ingrained worldview.

      Jan Sammer
      Prague, Czech Republic
      sammer@...
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