Loading ...
Sorry, an error occurred while loading the content.

17306RE: [XTalk] Re: Midrash

Expand Messages
  • John C. Poirier
    Dec 1, 2004
    • 0 Attachment
      Karel Hanhart wrote:

      > . . . Different from rabbi's among the Pharisee or teachers at
      > Qumran or Philo, Christian Judeans wrote midrashim to clarify the
      > mission and life of Jesus and his apostles in their context. The
      > number of NT scholars acknowledging that the authors of the gospels
      > did write midrashim, is growing.


      Your terminology is confusing me, because you seem to be equating
      interpreting Bible verses midrashically with "writing midrashim", which is
      way out of bounds as far as ordinary usage is concerned. Speaking the way
      most people use these terms, there *is* a growing number of scholars who
      acknowledge that the evangelists interpreted the OT along the lines of
      midrashic conventions, but it is *not* true that these scholars think that
      the evangelists "wrote midrashim". (If I occasionally use philology in my
      writings, that does not mean that I "write lexicons".)

      At the same time, I realize that the notion of "giving [or weaving] a
      midrash" does not necessarily involve writing a complete text, and I assume
      that your usage of the term has something to do with this. But from what
      I've read from you over the years on these e-lists, you seem to think that
      Mark as a whole is a sort of midrash, and that position, I think, involves
      either a terrific abuse of terms or a very strange understanding of Mark.

      John C. Poirier
      Middletown, Ohio
    • Show all 7 messages in this topic