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[Covenanted Reformation] Re: John Knox and "The Most Perfect School of Christ" (Q)

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  • thebishopsdoom
    ... No. That s not correct. That is not the logic behind the determination of instruments to have been a part of the ceremonial law, and secondly, it is not
    Message 1 of 6 , Jul 1 11:47 PM
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      --- In covenantedreformationclub@y..., "Taylor, Judson" <judson@f...>
      wrote:
      > I think because the NT doesn't refer to instruments in any way.
      >
      > I THINK that is the logic.
      No. That's not correct. That is not the logic behind the
      determination of instruments to have been a part of the ceremonial
      law, and secondly, it is not true that instruments are not referred
      to in the NT. I guess I'd resuggest the link I last posted for a
      better understanding of at least some of the issues involved in why
      most churches used to determine that the instruments were a part of
      the ceremonial law.
      -thebishopsdoom
    • thebishopsdoom
      ... OT, they were never used until introduced under David That would not be correct. For example, musical instruments were introduced into the worship service
      Message 2 of 6 , Jul 2 12:02 AM
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        --- In covenantedreformationclub@y..., "Cheryl" <cheryl@g...> wrote:
        >However, if you go back and look at the history of their use in the
        OT, they were never used until introduced under David

        That would not be correct.
        For example, musical instruments were introduced into the worship
        service of the tabernacle in Numbers 10:10.
        I guess I'd resuggest the link I previously resuggested.
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