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Re: [Covenanted Reformation] Re: John Knox and "The Most Perfect School of Christ" (Q)

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  • Cheryl
    Dear Patrick, It doesn t make sense unless you realize that instruments were part of the temple worship and automatically passed away with the rest of temple
    Message 1 of 6 , Jul 1, 2002
      Dear Patrick,
       
      It doesn't make sense unless you realize that instruments were part of the temple worship and automatically passed away with the rest of temple ceremonies like sacrifices, shew bread, etc., when the New Covenant was put in place.  We still sing of these things, but we would no more use an instrument any more than we would offer a burnt sacrifice.
       
      I think part of the confusion about instruments lies in the fact that many of us were raised with them and just assume that they are a lawful form of worship.  However, if you go back and look at the history of their use in the OT, they were never used until introduced under David, and then only by the Lord's command, as confirmed in the mouth of two witnesses. II Chron. 29:25 -- "And he stationed the Levites in the house of the LORD with cymbals, with stringed instruments, and with harps, according to the commandment of David, of Gad the king's seer, and of Nathan the prophet; for thus was the commandment of the LORD by his prophets."
       
      The actual amount of time when instruments were used in worship is quite short -- From the time of David until Calvary.  Thus, Calvin's conclusion is that to use the instruments in worship is to be involved in Judaizing.
       
      Cheryl
      ----- Original Message -----
      Sent: Monday, July 01, 2002 2:12 PM
      Subject: [Covenanted Reformation] Re: John Knox and "The Most Perfect School of Christ" (Q)

      "Musical instruments in celebrating the praise of God would be no
      more suitable than the burning of incense, the lighting up of lamps,
      the restoration of the other shadows of the law. The Papists,
      therefore, have foolishly borrowed this, as well as many other
      things, from the Jews." (Calvin's Commentary on Psalm 33).

      How does that reconcile with Psalm 150?  I don't quite follow banning
      instruments.

      Patrick



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    • thebishopsdoom
      ... No. That s not correct. That is not the logic behind the determination of instruments to have been a part of the ceremonial law, and secondly, it is not
      Message 2 of 6 , Jul 1, 2002
        --- In covenantedreformationclub@y..., "Taylor, Judson" <judson@f...>
        wrote:
        > I think because the NT doesn't refer to instruments in any way.
        >
        > I THINK that is the logic.
        No. That's not correct. That is not the logic behind the
        determination of instruments to have been a part of the ceremonial
        law, and secondly, it is not true that instruments are not referred
        to in the NT. I guess I'd resuggest the link I last posted for a
        better understanding of at least some of the issues involved in why
        most churches used to determine that the instruments were a part of
        the ceremonial law.
        -thebishopsdoom
      • thebishopsdoom
        ... OT, they were never used until introduced under David That would not be correct. For example, musical instruments were introduced into the worship service
        Message 3 of 6 , Jul 2, 2002
          --- In covenantedreformationclub@y..., "Cheryl" <cheryl@g...> wrote:
          >However, if you go back and look at the history of their use in the
          OT, they were never used until introduced under David

          That would not be correct.
          For example, musical instruments were introduced into the worship
          service of the tabernacle in Numbers 10:10.
          I guess I'd resuggest the link I previously resuggested.
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