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Covenant of Works Question

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  • knoxknoxwhosthere
    Okay, folks, help me out with this one ~ The argument has been put forward that Adam did not transgress the covenant of Works, but rather
    Message 1 of 1 , Dec 2, 2001
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      Okay, folks, help me out with this one
      ~<br><br>The argument has been put forward that Adam did not
      transgress the <br>covenant of Works, but rather
      transgressed the Covenant of Grace. I <br>am currently reading
      through Vincent's commentary on the Larger <br>Catechism
      and he is maintaining that Adam's disobedience was
      not a <br>bare disobedience of a law (not to eat) but
      rather was a combination <br>of law and covenant
      transgressed. He argues because death was <br>threatened, life,
      a priori, is assumed and that obedience to the
      <br>covenant would net not only confirmation of the life he
      already <br>possessed, but also the superadded blessing
      of heavenly blessedness.<br><br>Ugh, I am probably
      not being clear in this. What I want to know is,
      <br>how would you folks who assume that Adam broke the
      covenant of Works, <br>and not of Grace go about defending
      this notion?<br><br>How do we know that the covenant
      made with Christ was not merely the <br>same covenant,
      only kept by Christ better than Adam (ie perfect
      <br>obedience to God's laws).<br><br>If election is based on
      the Covenant of Redemption, then can it be
      <br>validly argued that all men are judged on the basis of
      the Covenant <br>of Grace, rather than saying that
      men relate to God based either on <br>the covenant of
      Works or the covenant of Grace?<br><br><br>Knoxknox
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