I once read a book by a baptist-- don't remember his name, but the
book was titled "Dear Preacher, Please Quit." Within the book were
the customary, fundamentalist baptist notion that "the KJV is
inspired", even to the point that "charity" in 1 Cor. 13 is the
inspired translation of agape, "love" being unacceptable. But, the
word wine? Well, that is obviously unfermented juices.
I laughed while reading and still do when I think about it.
--- In firstname.lastname@example.org, "gmw"
> Covenanters believe in using the best available translation, from
> best available text, that has been approved for use in our
> and yes, that ends up being the KJV. Do not mistake this, however,
> with the KJV-only folks who insist that the KJV is the only Word of
> --- In email@example.com, "Deejay"
> <CrazyCalvinist@f...> wrote:
> > I was just wondering, out of curiosity, more than anything, as
> > to ding my gong, of someone saying that here before, but do the
> > church, think only the KJV is a proper version of Scripture to be
> > I don't, I have to say from the outset. But just wondered if
> > here did, and what the reasons behind it were if so.
> > (if this is a faulty memeory then sorry and just ignore)
> > ~Deejay
> > --
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