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183470Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

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  • Matthew Boutilier
    Oct 12, 2011
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      >
      > Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.
      >
      > Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.
      >
      > Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.
      >

      exactly. the imperfect can also have a present meaning, however (otherwise
      how would you speak of the present?).

      i believe the perfect construction has taken on a present meaning in the
      modern language (e.g. ahavti = I love) but really don't know too much about
      the modern language.

      matt

      On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 4:48 PM, Adam Walker <carraxan@...> wrote:

      > On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 4:33 PM, Charles W Brickner <
      > tepeyachill@...> wrote:
      >
      > > -----Original Message-----
      > > From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:CONLANG@...] On
      > > Behalf Of Adam Walker
      > > Sent: Wednesday, October 12, 2011 3:11 PM
      > > To: CONLANG@...
      > > Subject: Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
      > >
      > > I was thinking about this again since the Neilah service on Yom Kippur.
      > > One
      > > of the songs/prayers includes the repeated line "Adonai melech. Adonai
      > > malach. Adonai yimloch." The translation ran "The L-ord is king. The
      > > L-rd
      > > was king. The L-rd will be king." Now I don't really speak Hebrew, but
      > > ordinarily I would interpret "Adonai melech," as lord zero-copula king
      > with
      > > two nouns juxtaposed to show equation. But then how to interpret the
      > > clearly parallel "Adonai malach" and "Adonai yimloch"? Is this a case of
      > > tense marking on a noun? I guess it could be explained as the noun and
      > the
      > > third person present of the verb just co-incidentally having the same
      > form
      > > (in which case it would be better to translate it as "The L-ord
      > > reigns/reigned/will reign"). Is this identity of the nominal form and
      > the
      > > 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew? Or is this an odd case of tense marking
      > on
      > > a
      > > noun in Hebrew?
      > >
      > > If I remember my Hebrew correctly from the seminary at Catholic U. this
      > is
      > > what we have:
      > >
      > > Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.
      > >
      > > Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.
      > >
      > > Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.
      > >
      > > Charlie
      > >
      >
      >
      > So is there any reason it couldn't be reinterpreted as kings/kang/will king
      > (couldn't resist making it a strong verb) making it a tense marked noun?
      > Or
      > rather, and more on topic, is there any reason why it couldn't be evolved
      > in
      > just such a way for conlanging purposes. this seems like a very
      > tempting/valid way for such tense marking on nouns to arise which might,
      > eventually, lead to an entirely verbless language, or alternately an
      > entirely nounless one depending on development and analysis.
      >
      > Adam
      >
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