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183469Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

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  • Adam Walker
    Oct 12, 2011
      On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 4:33 PM, Charles W Brickner <
      tepeyachill@...> wrote:

      > -----Original Message-----
      > From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:CONLANG@...] On
      > Behalf Of Adam Walker
      > Sent: Wednesday, October 12, 2011 3:11 PM
      > To: CONLANG@...
      > Subject: Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
      >
      > I was thinking about this again since the Neilah service on Yom Kippur.
      > One
      > of the songs/prayers includes the repeated line "Adonai melech. Adonai
      > malach. Adonai yimloch." The translation ran "The L-ord is king. The
      > L-rd
      > was king. The L-rd will be king." Now I don't really speak Hebrew, but
      > ordinarily I would interpret "Adonai melech," as lord zero-copula king with
      > two nouns juxtaposed to show equation. But then how to interpret the
      > clearly parallel "Adonai malach" and "Adonai yimloch"? Is this a case of
      > tense marking on a noun? I guess it could be explained as the noun and the
      > third person present of the verb just co-incidentally having the same form
      > (in which case it would be better to translate it as "The L-ord
      > reigns/reigned/will reign"). Is this identity of the nominal form and the
      > 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew? Or is this an odd case of tense marking on
      > a
      > noun in Hebrew?
      >
      > If I remember my Hebrew correctly from the seminary at Catholic U. this is
      > what we have:
      >
      > Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.
      >
      > Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.
      >
      > Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.
      >
      > Charlie
      >


      So is there any reason it couldn't be reinterpreted as kings/kang/will king
      (couldn't resist making it a strong verb) making it a tense marked noun? Or
      rather, and more on topic, is there any reason why it couldn't be evolved in
      just such a way for conlanging purposes. this seems like a very
      tempting/valid way for such tense marking on nouns to arise which might,
      eventually, lead to an entirely verbless language, or alternately an
      entirely nounless one depending on development and analysis.

      Adam
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