183469Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
- Oct 12, 2011On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 4:33 PM, Charles W Brickner <
> -----Original Message-----So is there any reason it couldn't be reinterpreted as kings/kang/will king
> From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:CONLANG@...] On
> Behalf Of Adam Walker
> Sent: Wednesday, October 12, 2011 3:11 PM
> To: CONLANG@...
> Subject: Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
> I was thinking about this again since the Neilah service on Yom Kippur.
> of the songs/prayers includes the repeated line "Adonai melech. Adonai
> malach. Adonai yimloch." The translation ran "The L-ord is king. The
> was king. The L-rd will be king." Now I don't really speak Hebrew, but
> ordinarily I would interpret "Adonai melech," as lord zero-copula king with
> two nouns juxtaposed to show equation. But then how to interpret the
> clearly parallel "Adonai malach" and "Adonai yimloch"? Is this a case of
> tense marking on a noun? I guess it could be explained as the noun and the
> third person present of the verb just co-incidentally having the same form
> (in which case it would be better to translate it as "The L-ord
> reigns/reigned/will reign"). Is this identity of the nominal form and the
> 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew? Or is this an odd case of tense marking on
> noun in Hebrew?
> If I remember my Hebrew correctly from the seminary at Catholic U. this is
> what we have:
> Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.
> Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.
> Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.
(couldn't resist making it a strong verb) making it a tense marked noun? Or
rather, and more on topic, is there any reason why it couldn't be evolved in
just such a way for conlanging purposes. this seems like a very
tempting/valid way for such tense marking on nouns to arise which might,
eventually, lead to an entirely verbless language, or alternately an
entirely nounless one depending on development and analysis.
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