183468Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
- Oct 12, 2011-----Original Message-----
From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:CONLANG@...] On
Behalf Of Adam Walker
Sent: Wednesday, October 12, 2011 3:11 PM
Subject: Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
I was thinking about this again since the Neilah service on Yom Kippur. One
of the songs/prayers includes the repeated line "Adonai melech. Adonai
malach. Adonai yimloch." The translation ran "The L-ord is king. The L-rd
was king. The L-rd will be king." Now I don't really speak Hebrew, but
ordinarily I would interpret "Adonai melech," as lord zero-copula king with
two nouns juxtaposed to show equation. But then how to interpret the
clearly parallel "Adonai malach" and "Adonai yimloch"? Is this a case of
tense marking on a noun? I guess it could be explained as the noun and the
third person present of the verb just co-incidentally having the same form
(in which case it would be better to translate it as "The L-ord
reigns/reigned/will reign"). Is this identity of the nominal form and the
3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew? Or is this an odd case of tense marking on a
noun in Hebrew?
If I remember my Hebrew correctly from the seminary at Catholic U. this is
what we have:
Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.
Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.
Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.
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