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183468Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

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  • Charles W Brickner
    Oct 12 2:33 PM
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      -----Original Message-----
      From: Constructed Languages List [mailto:CONLANG@...] On
      Behalf Of Adam Walker
      Sent: Wednesday, October 12, 2011 3:11 PM
      To: CONLANG@...
      Subject: Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

      I was thinking about this again since the Neilah service on Yom Kippur. One
      of the songs/prayers includes the repeated line "Adonai melech. Adonai
      malach. Adonai yimloch." The translation ran "The L-ord is king. The L-rd
      was king. The L-rd will be king." Now I don't really speak Hebrew, but
      ordinarily I would interpret "Adonai melech," as lord zero-copula king with
      two nouns juxtaposed to show equation. But then how to interpret the
      clearly parallel "Adonai malach" and "Adonai yimloch"? Is this a case of
      tense marking on a noun? I guess it could be explained as the noun and the
      third person present of the verb just co-incidentally having the same form
      (in which case it would be better to translate it as "The L-ord
      reigns/reigned/will reign"). Is this identity of the nominal form and the
      3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew? Or is this an odd case of tense marking on a
      noun in Hebrew?

      If I remember my Hebrew correctly from the seminary at Catholic U. this is
      what we have:

      Adonai (is) king. No copula necessary.

      Adonai reigned. The perfect of malak, to reign.

      Adonai will reign. The imperfect of malak.

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