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183467Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

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  • Adam Walker
    Oct 12, 2011
      Well, like I said, I don't actually speak Hebrew; I just know a growing
      number of nouns and a few verb forms here and there. I haven't studied it
      at all, so I don't know what's happening in these sentences. I'm trying to
      find out if anyone here knows.


      On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 3:45 PM, Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>wrote:

      > On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 21:10, Adam Walker <carraxan@...> wrote:
      > > Is this identity of the nominal form and the
      > > 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew?
      > I thought Biblical Hebrew didn't have a present tense - only
      > perfective and imperfective aspects, or something along those lines?
      > Modern Hebrew does have a present tense, derived from a present
      > participle AFAIK. (And hence - like the Russian past tense, for
      > example - inflecting for number and gender but not person, even if the
      > subject is a person which does not ordinarily inflect for gender.) But
      > I suspect such ritual utterings won't be in Modern Hebrew?
      > Cheers,
      > Philip
      > --
      > Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
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