183467Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
- Oct 12, 2011Well, like I said, I don't actually speak Hebrew; I just know a growing
number of nouns and a few verb forms here and there. I haven't studied it
at all, so I don't know what's happening in these sentences. I'm trying to
find out if anyone here knows.
On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 3:45 PM, Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>wrote:
> On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 21:10, Adam Walker <carraxan@...> wrote:
> > Is this identity of the nominal form and the
> > 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew?
> I thought Biblical Hebrew didn't have a present tense - only
> perfective and imperfective aspects, or something along those lines?
> Modern Hebrew does have a present tense, derived from a present
> participle AFAIK. (And hence - like the Russian past tense, for
> example - inflecting for number and gender but not person, even if the
> subject is a person which does not ordinarily inflect for gender.) But
> I suspect such ritual utterings won't be in Modern Hebrew?
> Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
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