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183466Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns

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  • Philip Newton
    Oct 12, 2011
      On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 21:10, Adam Walker <carraxan@...> wrote:
      > Is this identity of the nominal form and the
      > 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew?

      I thought Biblical Hebrew didn't have a present tense - only
      perfective and imperfective aspects, or something along those lines?

      Modern Hebrew does have a present tense, derived from a present
      participle AFAIK. (And hence - like the Russian past tense, for
      example - inflecting for number and gender but not person, even if the
      subject is a person which does not ordinarily inflect for gender.) But
      I suspect such ritual utterings won't be in Modern Hebrew?

      Cheers,
      Philip
      --
      Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
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