183466Re: Further info on tense marking for nouns
- Oct 12, 2011On Wed, Oct 12, 2011 at 21:10, Adam Walker <carraxan@...> wrote:
> Is this identity of the nominal form and theI thought Biblical Hebrew didn't have a present tense - only
> 3p-sing PRES common in Hebrew?
perfective and imperfective aspects, or something along those lines?
Modern Hebrew does have a present tense, derived from a present
participle AFAIK. (And hence - like the Russian past tense, for
example - inflecting for number and gender but not person, even if the
subject is a person which does not ordinarily inflect for gender.) But
I suspect such ritual utterings won't be in Modern Hebrew?
Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
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