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Re: [code-switching] urgent!! please..

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  • Silvina Faure
    Hello. I have no studies to back up what you re saying, so what I ll give is just an opinion based on experience and common sense, it appeals to me, that s
    Message 1 of 5 , Jan 28, 2005
      Hello. I have no studies to back up what you're saying, so what I'll give is just an opinion based on experience and common sense, it appeals to me, that's all, so bear it in mind.
      I have always read and been told by my teachers that tags are one of the last things to be acquired in a second language. Even people who show native-like proficiency in a second language can be spotted out as non-natives because of their failure to incorporate tags in conversation - I think there are studies on this. An example of this attempt at incorporating tags carried out by non-native speakers of English would be the tendency -among some immigrant communities- to use "innit?" where a tag would be required. As they have not mastered the tag mechanics yet, this simplified tag, in a way, fills the gap where they feel a native speaker would use one.
      According to this, I think that what you said - that the language where a tag is used the most is the language which is more comfortable for a person to use - sounds quite sensible to me.
      Best,
      Silvina
      ----- Original Message -----
      From: naominakamatsu
      To: code-switching@yahoogroups.com
      Sent: Thursday, January 27, 2005 10:58 AM
      Subject: [code-switching] urgent!! please..




      Hello. I am doing a research on Spanish-Japanese code-switching in
      Okinawa. I have read an article which said that "The language where
      a tag is used the most, is the language which is more comfortable
      for that person to use". is this true. if anybody has any
      information on this please tell me!!!
      thank you








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    • cuneo9999
      Hello, If I understand your question correctly, whether the language in which the most tags are used in codeswitched speech is the language in which the
      Message 2 of 5 , Jan 28, 2005
        Hello,

        If I understand your question correctly, whether the language in
        which the most tags are used in codeswitched speech is the language
        in which the speaker is most comfortable, I would disagree. If we are
        using the word comfortable to mean dominance in terms of proficiency,
        there are many examples in which the opposite is true.
        That is, the speaker may have limited proficiency in the language in
        which he or she uses a lot of tags, and may be unable to produce much
        more than such units, which can be learned as chunks. An example
        from Spanish/English codeswitching would be the use of such tags as
        verdad?, no? eso! etc. at the end of an utterance that is otherwise
        monolingual in English.

        Best,
        Laura Callahan


        ---

        In code-switching@yahoogroups.com, "naominakamatsu"
        <naominakamatsu@y...> wrote:
        >
        >
        > Hello. I am doing a research on Spanish-Japanese code-switching in
        > Okinawa. I have read an article which said that "The language where
        > a tag is used the most, is the language which is more comfortable
        > for that person to use". is this true. if anybody has any
        > information on this please tell me!!!
        > thank you
      • Susan Ervin-Tripp
        ... I don t really understand what this means. Perhaps you should give some examples. In the literature on children s bilingual acquisition of two languages,
        Message 3 of 5 , Jan 28, 2005
          >The language where a tag is used the most is the language
          >that is more comfortable for that person to use.

          I don't really understand what this means. Perhaps you should give
          some examples.

          In the literature on children's bilingual acquisition of two languages,
          where there is some kind of morphological apparatus in the frame language
          the child uses importing lexical items from the other language, one
          can deduce that the language controlling the morphology is the
          dominant language.

          On the other hand, forms that are relatively syntax-free, like
          OK can be borrowed quite easily and used as a tag. You would not want to
          say that everyone who borrows OK as a tag is English dominant!

          Or does this quote mean that it is not the language of the tag, but
          if the tag is a code-switch, it is the language of the rest of the utterance
          that is dominant?

          Susan Ervin-Tripp
        • Victoria Rodrigues
          Hello! concerning your question about the tags... I am not an expert on this field, but from my experience as a meber of the Spanish-speakers community in
          Message 4 of 5 , Jan 28, 2005
            Hello!

            concerning your question about the tags... I am not an expert on this field, but from my experience as a meber of the Spanish-speakers community in Germany, I can only say that this affimation is not applicable to our CS. We use lot of German tags. The amount varies according to many factors, but even the "newcomers" are very fast in introducing them in our every day Spanish-German.

            Hope I could help you a little bit with this information,

            Bye and good luck



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