Actually, it is an active subjunctive form in a present general condition. Literally, that portion of the condition states, "Unless the Father, having sent me, draws him." Hope that helps.
----- Original Message -----
From: funhistory <yahoo_biblical-studies@...>
Sent: Thu, 11 Apr 2013 19:25:38 -0400 (EDT)
Subject: [biblicalist] "Father Draws Him" Grammar
"No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent me draws him..." (John 6:44).
Question for the NT Greek experts among us: Is "Father draws him (Pater elkuse auton)" in this verse active or passive? By analogy, a pretty lady can unwittingly attract a man just because she's (passively) a pretty lady; or a lady can doll herself up in an attractive way & (actively) cross a specific man's path to ensure he notices her. Which of these reflects the grammar of John 6:44, & how would the grammar of the noun, verb, &/or pronoun have to change to convey the opposite voice? I've seen this verse discussed in the context of Calvinism & Arminianism, but I just want unbiased grammar sans dogma. As always, thanks in advance for any responses!
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]