There are a lot of OT passages which affirms that Jesus is YHWH (for example compare Ps. 102:25 with Heb. 1:10; Ps. 34:8; with 1Pet. 2:3-8; Isaiah 8:12-13 with 1Pet. 3:14-15). We come up with this conclusion in the way you exegete these passages (Jeremiah 23:5-6; Jon 1:1c). Please know that in the NT the word theos refers substitute that the OT YHWH and we should translate OT in the light of NT since Gods revelation is progressive.
I do not understand Paul Leonards argument. What is his reasons in order to come up with, Your position leads to Oneness not the Trinity. If John 1:1c used definite article as it is John 1:1b (ton theon) it could
lead us Oneness view/Jusus and Father are one person.
As far as my knowledge is concerned, your exegesis is very much right!
In His Grip,
Director of the Society
============ ========= ========= ======
Tesfaye Robele, Founder and Director
The Evangelical Society for
Post Office Box 23045, Code 1000
Addis Ababa , Ethiopia
E-mail: <apologetics@ ethionet. et>
============ ========= ========= ===== Ken Hutson <postoak777@aol. com>
First let me say that I believe in the Trinity so that no one will
misunderstand my perspective when I write.
I also belong to another forum, which is more accurately described as
a debate board. I have participated in the JW and the Islam forums.
The debate type of format is quite a challenge, but I think it is
improving my ability to defend the eesential doctrines of the
I noticed on the JW board they (JWs) dismiss the OT prophecies we
consider to prove the Deity of Jesus Christ because of what I would
call their "a god" doctrine which basically says that angels and men
are also called gods (elohim)so Jesus is nothing more than a god
(elohim) as well.
I came across another reference to Jesus deity in Jeremiah 23:5-6
where YHWH says the name of the Messiah will be "YHWH our
"Behold, the days are coming," declares the LORD,
"When I will
raise up for David a righteous Branch;
And He will reign as king and act wisely
And do justice and righteousness in the land.
In His days Judah will be saved,
And Israel will dwell securely;
And this is His name by which He will be called,
`The LORD our righteousness. '"
From my perspective, when I compare this passage with Jon 1:1c: "the
Word was God", I see YHWH calling Jesus "YHWH." I consider this to be
proof their objection to "the God" (ho theos) calling Jesus "God" is
false, and proof Jesus posesses the same nature/essence as the
Father. In other words, it seems to me it refutes their claim
that Jesus has a God, so he cannot at the same time be that very same
Is my assertion that Jeremiah 23:5-6 shows Jesus and the father must
posess the same nature valid?
How would you express that Jeremiah 23:5-6 refutes their claim Jesus
has a God, so he cannot at the same time be that very same
Is it valid to say that when comparing "YHWH our Righteousness" with
John 1:1c, the two statements are in agreement?
How would you use this passage as an exegetical defense of John 1:1c?
What comments would you make in defense of the Trinity concerning
I've asked a lot of questions, so I will understand if you choose not
to try and answer them all in your reply.
Thanks and blessings,
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