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681RE: [biblicalapologetics] Re: The Disciple Whom Jesus Loved

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  • Jeff Koenig
    Nov 6, 2004
      I think 1 cor 11:4-5 must be interpreted in harmony with 1 cor. 14:34-35 and with 1 tim. 2:9-15.
      If we assume that women were allowed to "prophsy" in public meetings, and that Paul did not intend to forbid that practice (just to regulate it), then whatever prophesying means, it cannot mean what Paul forbids women to do in 1 cor. 14:35-34 ("speak") or teach/exercise authority over mean (as in 1 Tim2).
      It is significant that in both bases Paul appeals to the Law.  In 1 cor. 14, his restriction is "just as the Law also says" -- the women are to keep silent and not speak.  In 1 Tim. 2, he appeals to the order of creation in Gen. 2, and to the order of the fall (Eve deceived first).
      I don't think the prophesying in 1 cor 12-14 was the same as handing down inerrant scripture (writing a NT book).  Also, the prophet was not really in authority, since the church was required to sit in judgment: "And let two or three prophets speak, and let the others pass judgment."  Presumably, if a male or female prophet got up and said something that was wrong (e.g., inconsistent with apostolic teaching), the elders (men) would determine that fact and inform the church.  That is not the same as the female prophet being an elder, or passing judgment on the teaching of the elders. 
      -----Original Message-----
      From: supergohanlee [mailto:supergohanlee@...]
      Sent: Friday, November 05, 2004 10:32 PM
      To: biblicalapologetics@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: [biblicalapologetics] Re: The Disciple Whom Jesus Loved

      1 Corinthians 11:4-5 ("Every man who prays or prophesies with his
      head covered dishonors his head. And every woman who prays or
      prophesies with her head uncovered dishonors her head--it is just as
      though her head were shaved"), in context of giving propriety in
      Worship, seems to suggest that women were clearly prophesying in the
      NT church.  Doesn't this suggest that women were allowed to teach in
      the church, and also allow the women to write NT books?

      But whether women are allowed to write the Scripture or not, could
      there be any other conflict with the orthodox Christian doctrine if
      the author of the Gospel of John were really a woman?

      Han J. Lee

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