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674Re: The Disciple Whom Jesus Loved

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  • supergohanlee
    Nov 5, 2004
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      1 Corinthians 11:4-5 ("Every man who prays or prophesies with his
      head covered dishonors his head. And every woman who prays or
      prophesies with her head uncovered dishonors her head--it is just as
      though her head were shaved"), in context of giving propriety in
      Worship, seems to suggest that women were clearly prophesying in the
      NT church. Doesn't this suggest that women were allowed to teach in
      the church, and also allow the women to write NT books?

      But whether women are allowed to write the Scripture or not, could
      there be any other conflict with the orthodox Christian doctrine if
      the author of the Gospel of John were really a woman?

      Han J. Lee

      --- In biblicalapologetics@yahoogroups.com, "Jeff Koenig"
      <jkoenig@s...> wrote:
      > I think the context in 1 tim 2 is more about conduct in public
      > rather than within the family. verse 8 seems to be speaking about
      > public prayer by men. then v. 9 to the end of the chapter is about
      > women (what they should wear, how they should act, etc.). Then
      > 3 is about the qualifications for overseers and deacons in the
      > In 3:15 Paul explains that these instructions were given "that you
      > know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God.
      > 1 is about refuting doctrinal error through public teaching.
      > Also, Paul gives a similar teaching concerning the role of women in
      > cor. 14:34, basing it on "the Law" (possibly referring to Gen. 2 as
      in 1
      > Tim 2). There, the context clear is that of the public assembly and
      > proper conduct in that place.
      > If women can't teach in the church (at least where that would
      amount to
      > exercising authority over men, as where the woman is the senior
      > pastor), then women can't be apostles and write NT books.
      > -----Original Message-----
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