Re: [anthroposophy] Theory of Knowledge
- In a message dated 12/14/01 3:10:27 AM, softabyss@... writes:
<< In ToK when Steiner is describing 'pure experience'
and he talks about it devoid of thinking, is he
describing an actual experience which he is expecting
the reader to be making with him in the moment, or is
he describing an inference which we can easily make
with him in the moment? The words he uses
(translated) imply it is an experience, yet the style
of argument is in the realm of analysis.
*******He's speaking of pure perception, what we actually perceive before
thinking about it... the 'blooming, buzzing confusion' William James intuited
that babies experience.