Was Lk 22:37 interpolated? (was: Lk 22:35-39 - Interpolation or not?)
- "The whole verse, Luke 22:37, breaks the sense of the paragraph, and
probably is no true part of it." (Lindars, NT Apologetic, 85)
My working hypothesis is as follows:
"And the one who has no sword must sell his cloak and buy one" (Lk 22:36b,
NRSV) was intended as hyperbole, and "Lord, look, here are two swords" (v.
38a, NRSV) presented the disciples as taking it literally. v. 38b meant
"Enough of that", c.f. "Enough!" (REB). All this was too subtle for one
scribe who, worried about the implication of v. 36b that Jesus appeared to
be encouraging armed rebellion, inserted v. 37 in an effort to make out that
Jesus' words were foreordained, and therefore to criticize them would be
illogical. This motivation for the fulfilment claims is consistent with
Brandon's understanding: "... Luke attempts to explain [the arming] in terms
of the fulfilment of a prophecy (22:37)" (Jesus and the Zealots, 317 n.3).
[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]