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Re: [Synoptic-L] THE SON OF MAN

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  • Ronald Price
    ... Richard, I don t think so. Paul wrote that the Messiah (Christ) comes from Israel (Rom 9:4-5). ... Actually I think he *was* anointed. The story in Mk
    Message 1 of 45 , May 28, 2012
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      Richard Godwin wrote:

      > A good case for Paul's use of "christos" is from understanding his Greek
      > thinking and background, that the word refers back to Greek sources .....

      Richard,

      I don't think so. Paul wrote that the Messiah (Christ) comes from Israel
      (Rom 9:4-5).

      > ..... The word Chrestes means priest and prophet, a term which on the surface
      > may appears to be far more applicable to Jesus, than that of the "Anointed,"
      > since, he never was anointed, either as king or priest.

      Actually I think he *was* anointed. The story in Mk 14:3-9 looks like a
      somewhat distorted record of the anointing of Jesus as King/Messiah. Note
      especially that in this, the earliest gospel account, the ointment is poured
      on his head, c.f. 1 Sam 10:1.

      Ron Price,

      Derbyshire, UK

      http://homepage.virgin.net/ron.price/syno_home.html



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    • Dennis Goffin
      David, Luke does. Compare Lk 21:32 written after the fall of Jerusalem, with Mk 9:1 & 13:30 which speaks of a generation over 30 years earlier. For an analysis
      Message 45 of 45 , Jun 11, 2012
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        David,
        Luke does. Compare Lk 21:32 written after the fall of Jerusalem, with Mk 9:1 & 13:30 which speaks of a generation over 30 years earlier. For an analysis in depth of this question, I recommend Casey's book " The Solution to the Son of Man Problem" (2009)
        Dennis
        ---------------------

        Dennis Goffin

        Chorleywood UK


        To: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com
        From: ron-price@...
        Date: Sun, 10 Jun 2012 18:11:08 +0100
        Subject: Re: [Synoptic-L] The coming kingdom


























        Apologies for the late reply. I've been on holiday in the English Lake

        District.



        David Cavanagh wrote:



        > If, as you suggest below, the original statement was thought to refer to

        > a return of Jesus, and the evangelists increasingly saw this as a

        > problem because it was not happening, and attempted to adapt the

        > materials, why do they not drop the reference to the present generation

        > of "some who are standing here"



        David,



        Each synoptic evangelist had a problem when dealing with an embarrassing

        text. Such a text could be repeated in full, abbreviated, altered, and/or

        put in a context which essentially changed its meaning. Thus the dropping of

        a reference would depend on how the particular evangelist felt at the time

        about the degree of embarrassment the reference caused.



        > ..... But Mark is the earliest gospel, and I very much doubt that Jesus

        > "failure to return" would actually be a problem as early as AD65-70.



        Mark, the earliest gospel, was probably written in 71 CE, shortly after the

        fall of Jerusalem. This was fully 40 years after the crucifixion, and plenty

        of time to be worried about the absence of a 'return' which had been

        expected to be imminent. Certainly Paul had expected it to be within his

        lifetime when he wrote to the Thessalonians: " ... we who are alive, who are

        left until the coming of the Lord ..." (1 Thess 4:15). But by the time he

        wrote the Philippian 'Joyful Letter', he seems to have changed his mind.

        (Php 1:21-26).



        Ron Price,



        Derbyshire, UK



        http://homepage.virgin.net/ron.price/syno_home.html



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