- BRUCE: The same word is used in Mk, repeatedly, of the specific betrayal of Judas. I would think that the nuance of betrayal is fully available for thisMessage 1 of 9 , Jan 25, 2012View SourceBRUCE: >>The same word is used in Mk, repeatedly, of the specific betrayal of
Judas. I would think that the nuance of "betrayal" is fully available for
this word, both in Judas contexts and otherwise, and that Paul, in using
Mark's word, is also, on mere lexical grounds, liable to be interpreted in
the sense which Mark gives it.<<
I should think we might give first consideration to the sense in which Paul himself uses the word when writing of Jesus being "given up", e.g. Romans 8:32: "He who did not spare his own Son but gave him up for us all" (cf. Rom. 4.25, Gal. 2.20).
Ken OlsonPhD CandidateReligion
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- ... Let me get this straight: You use Strongs (which is NOT, despite what it labels itself to be, a Lexicon, but a notation of what the KJV translatorsMessage 2 of 9 , Jan 25, 2012View SourceOn 1/25/2012 11:36 AM, E Bruce Brooks wrote:
>Let me get this straight: You use Strongs (which is NOT, despite what
> BRUCE: Strong 3860. The word basically means "hand on" (in the sense of
> transmit; saepe, eg 1Cor 11:2, Rom 6:17, Ac 6:14 of Mosaic tradition) or
> "hand over" (deliver to the authorities; also saepe, eg Mk 27:2, of the
> Sanhedrin to Pilate).
it labels itself to be, a Lexicon, but a notation of what the KJV
translators thought was the best English equivalent for a Greek word in
a particular passage) as your guide to the "basic sense" (good god!)
and the semantic range of Greek words ion first century writings????
Jeffrey B. Gibson D.Phil. Oxon.
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