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RE: [Synoptic-L] Luke 5:14 - Direct to Indirect - An interpolation?

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  • David Inglis
    Stephen, thank you. This is especially interesting to me because it mentions the exact verse I was asking about. David Inglis, Lafayette, CA, 94549, USA ...
    Message 1 of 3 , Aug 26, 2011
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      Stephen, thank you. This is especially interesting to me because it mentions the exact verse I was asking about.
      David Inglis, Lafayette, CA, 94549, USA

      -----Original Message-----
      From: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com [mailto:Synoptic@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of Stephen Carlson
      Sent: Friday, August 26, 2011 9:34 AM
      To: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: Re: [Synoptic-L] Luke 5:14 - Direct to Indirect - An interpolation?

      Apparently, it's fairly common in Greek to mix indirect and direct discourse.

      Here's an abstract I recently found of a conference paper that discusses this issue:

      http://ncs.ruhosting.nl/agst/abstracts/abstract_AGST_Maier.pdf

      Stephen

      On Fri, Aug 26, 2011 at 12:31 PM, David Inglis <davidinglis2@...>wrote:

      > The NET Bible has this for Lk 5:14: "Then he ordered the man to tell no one, but commanded him, "Go and show yourself
      to
      > a priest, and bring the offering for your cleansing, as Moses commanded, as a testimony to them."" It then has this
      > note: The words "commanded him" are not in the Greek text but have been supplied for clarity. This verse moves from
      > indirect to direct discourse. This abrupt change is very awkward, so the words have been supplied to smooth out the
      > transition.
      >
      > Other bibles add 'said he' or something similar to smooth the transition, e.g. "And he commanded him to tell no
      person.
      > But go, [said he,] show yourself to the priest." It seems to me that a potentially important issue is being hidden
      here,
      > since the 'awkward' change from indirect to direct suggests that most of Lk 5:14 might be an interpolation, and that
      > originally it just read: "Then he ordered the man to tell no one," with the OT reference to Moses being added later.
      The
      > fact that Marcion and Bezae both have a different ends to Lk 5:14 (reading "to you" instead of "to them") also
      supports
      > the idea that most of this verse could have been a late addition. Does anyone have anything to add that might support
      > (or not) the idea on an interpolation here?
      >
      > David Inglis, Lafayette, CA, 94549, USA
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