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Matthew in Marcion?

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  • David @ Comcast
    One of the curious points made by Tertullian is that Marcion erased from his gospel passages that we do not see in canonical Luke. Instead, the passages
    Message 1 of 2 , Jul 10, 2009
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      One of the curious points made by Tertullian is that Marcion erased from his
      gospel passages that we do not see in canonical Luke. Instead, the passages
      referred to are in Matthew:



      "It is, however, well that Marcion's god does claim to be the enlightener of
      the nations, that so he might have the better reason for coming down from
      heaven; only, if it must needs be, he should rather have made Pontus his
      place of descent than Galilee. But since both the place and the work of
      illumination according to the prophecy are compatible with Christ, we begin
      to discern that He is the subject of the prophecy, which shows that at the
      very outset of His ministry, He came not to destroy the law and the
      prophets, but rather to fulfil them; [Mt 5.17] for Marcion has erased the
      passage as an interpolation.



      It will, however, be vain for him to deny that Christ uttered in word what
      He forthwith did partially indeed. For the prophecy about place He at once
      fulfilled. From heaven straight to the synagogue. As the adage runs: "The
      business on which we are come, do at once." Marcion must even expunge from
      the Gospel, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel;
      "[Mt 15.24] and, "It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast
      it to dogs," [Mt 15.26] ----in order, forsooth, that Christ may not appear
      to be an Israelite."



      Is this an indication that Tertullian was simply mistaken, or should we take
      it as evidence that his copy of Luke was not the same as ours, and (perhaps)
      contained Mt 5:17, and the pericope we see in Mt 15:21-28?



      David Inglis

      Lafayette, CA, 94549

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    • Dennis Dean Carpenter
      I noticed that too, Dave. One can only realize that the second century was one of very fluid texts and even more divergent ways to interpret what each sect
      Message 2 of 2 , Jul 10, 2009
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        I noticed that too, Dave. One can only realize that the second century was one of very fluid texts and even more divergent ways to interpret what each sect had. Certainly, Tertullian and Marcion had non-matching texts of Galatians, too. Given that, doesn't it seem a bit problematic to try to identify "layers" of texts, especially attempting to relate them to the first century? Shards of Aramaic are not evidence. On every one of my coins, I have this curious "E pluribus unum," which of course would suggest (after the USA has run its course) a layer of "ancient Roman Latin speakers" in America. They probably, according to the language experts, set up the earliest colonies.

        Dennis Dean Carpenter
        Dahlonega, Ga.



        ----- Original Message -----
        From: David @ Comcast
        To: gpg@yahoogroups.com
        Cc: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com
        Sent: Friday, July 10, 2009 5:34 PM
        Subject: [Synoptic-L] Matthew in Marcion?





        One of the curious points made by Tertullian is that Marcion erased from his
        gospel passages that we do not see in canonical Luke. Instead, the passages
        referred to are in Matthew:

        "It is, however, well that Marcion's god does claim to be the enlightener of
        the nations, that so he might have the better reason for coming down from
        heaven; only, if it must needs be, he should rather have made Pontus his
        place of descent than Galilee. But since both the place and the work of
        illumination according to the prophecy are compatible with Christ, we begin
        to discern that He is the subject of the prophecy, which shows that at the
        very outset of His ministry, He came not to destroy the law and the
        prophets, but rather to fulfil them; [Mt 5.17] for Marcion has erased the
        passage as an interpolation.

        It will, however, be vain for him to deny that Christ uttered in word what
        He forthwith did partially indeed. For the prophecy about place He at once
        fulfilled. From heaven straight to the synagogue. As the adage runs: "The
        business on which we are come, do at once." Marcion must even expunge from
        the Gospel, "I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel;
        "[Mt 15.24] and, "It is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast
        it to dogs," [Mt 15.26] ----in order, forsooth, that Christ may not appear
        to be an Israelite."

        Is this an indication that Tertullian was simply mistaken, or should we take
        it as evidence that his copy of Luke was not the same as ours, and (perhaps)
        contained Mt 5:17, and the pericope we see in Mt 15:21-28?

        David Inglis

        Lafayette, CA, 94549

        __

        No virus found in this incoming message.
        Checked by AVG - www.avg.com
        Version: 8.5.339 / Virus Database: 270.12.83/2191 - Release Date: 06/23/09
        05:54:00

        [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]





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