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Re: [Synoptic-L] Mark and the Jews

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  • Jack Kilmon
    ... From: To: Sent: Monday, May 25, 2009 7:05 AM Subject: Re: [Synoptic-L] Mark and the Jews ... The context with
    Message 1 of 23 , May 30, 2009
      ----- Original Message -----
      From: <Maluflen@...>
      To: <Synoptic@yahoogroups.com>
      Sent: Monday, May 25, 2009 7:05 AM
      Subject: Re: [Synoptic-L] Mark and the Jews

      > BRUCE:
      > Mt 28:15 "and this story has been spread among the Jews to this day." Here
      > are the Jews as a whole, seen as opposed to the Christian account of
      > Jesus's
      > death and resurrection. This is the new element. It sees the Jews as
      > previously only the Romans have seen the Jews: as an "other." It betokens
      > the rise of Christian/Jewish opposition.
      > LEONARD: Bruce, I really wonder why you say this. Your instant?love affair
      > with Jack's insight into a possible meaning of IOUDAIOI for Mk 7:3 strikes
      > me as being motivated more by its congeniality to your previously held
      > views of Gospel relationships than by any strong exegetical argument. I
      > would think that the meaning "Judaeans" in this Matthean text should be
      > given at least as serious consideration as you gave it for the case of Mk
      > 7:3. But no; ideology reigns supreme. Not that the above interpretation of
      > Matt 28:15 is necessarily wrong or impossible exegetically. But if the
      > Judaean translation must be introduced in one of these two passages, the
      > exegetical arguments for this meaning in Matt 28:15 are much stronger than
      > those for that meaning in?Mk 7:3. In this climax of his Gospel, Matthew
      > (among other things) is contrasting the pitifully puny circulation of the
      > anti-resurrection teaching disseminated among Judaeans for base pay with
      > the resurrection message of Jesus' own teaching mandated for all nations
      > (28:19), and to be freely dispensed (cf. Matt 10:8b). The term IOUDAIOI
      > here in Matt is anarthrous: "Judaeans", not "the Jews". In Mk 7:3, by
      > contrast, the term is arthrous and is even?modified by the adjective
      > PANTES. This makes the meaning of the text?more likely what you thought it
      > was before the revelatory experience of reading Jack's post. "The
      > Pharisees and all the Jews" simply fits the context better?than does?"the
      > Pharisees and all the Judaeans," though I would be willing to leave open
      > a?remote possibility of the latter rendering.

      The context with the use of yehudiya (IUDAIOI) would be more like "The
      Pharisees and the rest of that Temple crowd." This certainly fits the
      tension between Galileans and the Temple elite. Otherwise for a Jew to
      write, "The Pharisees and them thar other Jews" makes no sense.


      Jack Kilmon
      San Antonio, TX

      > Leonard Maluf
      > Blessed John XXIII National Seminary
      > Weston, MA
      > [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
      > ------------------------------------
      > Synoptic-L homepage: http://NTGateway.com/synoptic-lYahoo! Groups Links


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