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Kingdom of God Kingdom of my Father

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  • Jeffrey B. Gibson
    Just wondering if we have any reason to believe that the reality that Jesus speaks of in Matt. 26:29 and parallels ( my father s kingdom ) is not the same
    Message 1 of 2 , Mar 8, 2009
      Just wondering if we have any reason to believe that the reality that
      Jesus speaks of in Matt. 26:29 and parallels ("my father's kingdom") is
      not the same one that he proclaims in Matt. 4:17 ("the Kingdom of

      The reason I ask is that I have a suspicion that we might be wrong to
      assume, as most exegetes do, that the "kingdom" whose "coming" Jesus
      tells his disciples to pray for ((which, in context, is strictly
      speaking, not the Kingdom of God, but their "Father's kingdom") is the
      reality that he designates elsewhere in the Synoptic tradition as the
      basileia tou theou..

      If there is a difference in referent between "my father's kingdom" and
      "the kingdom of God" (which, BTW, is never used in conjunction with the
      verb "to come), then there may be something else going on in the
      "kingdom petition of the LP than what is usually supposed.

      Any thoughts?


      Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon)
      1500 W. Pratt Blvd.
      Chicago, Illinois
      e-mail jgibson000@...

      [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
    • David Mealand
      Jeffrey asks whether Kingdom of my father might have a different reference from Kingdom of God . Matthew 26.29 until that day when I drink it new with you
      Message 2 of 2 , Mar 9, 2009
        Jeffrey asks whether "Kingdom of my father" might
        have a different reference from "Kingdom of God".
        Matthew 26.29 "until that day when I drink it new
        with you in the kingdom of my father" //
        Mark "until that day when I drink it new in the kingdom of God" //
        Luke "until the kingdom of God comes"

        Using different assumptions in turn:
        a) Mat adapts Mark. Evidence: texts of Matt normally offer "of heaven",
        occasionally "of God", here "of my father". Yes it is puzzling
        that Matthew should switch to a different alternative when avoiding
        just one more direct reference to God sitting in his source.

        b) Ignoring Mark - just looking at Matthew - again it doesn't
        look much different from a) except that we wouldn't know what
        any source might have had.

        Lohmeyer notes at this point the almost Johannine usage
        of "My father , I and you"

        Where else are kingdom and father in proximity? 1Cor 15.24
        is one such place. Are there others? Would this offer any
        hints as to why Matthew writes what he did?
        Lk.22.29 "as my father has
        allocated to me the/a kingdom" is much
        more crucial as it shares a similar context of
        eating and drinking.

        Then there is the issue of "come" in proximity to kingdom
        in Mat 6.10. We need to bear in mind that Lk 22.18 has
        the same aorist stem, Mk 11.10
        the participle of the (different) present stem, and other words
        with similar but not identical meanings are at Mat.10.7 and
        12.28 - on the latter verb I think Caragounis has some interesting
        comment in his recent tome on the Greek language.
        Surely we need to take account of related verb stems, and of
        other verbs with similar but not identical sense.

        Somewhat more tangentially on coming and going is
        the variation between the kingdom coming, or arriving, or being near,
        and people coming or going or entering into the kingdom. Is this
        variation of imagery the kind of fluidity we should actually
        expect in texts full of symbols, metaphors and images where
        divergent perspectives even turn up in close proximity?

        David M.


        David Mealand, University of Edinburgh

        The University of Edinburgh is a charitable body, registered in
        Scotland, with registration number SC005336.
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