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4784RE: [Synoptic-L] Re: Mk 2:27: A Western Non-Interpolation or not?

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  • David Mealand
    Feb 4, 2013
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      David Inglis wrote
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      Mk 2:27 and 28 do not fit well together, with v. 27 NOT leading to the
      conclusion in v. 28.
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      Compare

      A2.27 the sabbath was made for man not man for the sabbath
      A2.28 so (a/the) son of man is lord even over the sabbath

      with
      G2.27 the sabbath was made for man and not man for the sabbath
      G2.28 so THE SON of MAN (title) is Lord even over the sabbath

      A2.27 leads to A2.28 much better than G2.27 leads to G2.28

      hence the problem.

      I have, of course, over-emphasized, but have done so in order
      to try to indicate the point at issue.

      Matthew does indeed not like Mark 2.27 at all, but he is
      prepared to accept that special cases: priests doing duty
      in the temple, or "THE SON of MAN", can override normal prohibitions
      on shabbat, but this is not the case for just any member of the
      human race according to Matthew. Note also the latter's alteration
      to the Markan Apocalypse at Matt.24.20 versus Mk. 13.18.

      The shift from Aramaic to Greek translation, and then to people who
      use the Greek translation but are losing, or have lost, touch with
      the Aramaic gradually cranks up a problem. A crucial ambiguity
      has now been lost in 2.28. So 2.27 is now problematic. The solution
      was to dump some or all of Mark 2.27.

      But the passage is a splendid mix of linguistic and text-critical
      complications, quite enough to keep people busy for a long time.

      David M.





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      David Mealand, University of Edinburgh


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      The University of Edinburgh is a charitable body, registered in
      Scotland, with registration number SC005336.
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