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3814Re: [Synoptic-L] When is a parallel not a parallel? Also, when is a verse not a verse?

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  • Chuck Jones
    Oct 5, 2011
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      David,

      If I had to guess about your second question, it is that he demarcated the gospel verses over time, and simply forgot what he'd done earlier.

      Chuck

      Rev. Chuck Jones
      Atlanta, Georgia


      ________________________________
      From: David Inglis <davidinglis2@...>
      To: Synoptic@yahoogroups.com
      Sent: Wednesday, October 5, 2011 1:13 PM
      Subject: [Synoptic-L] When is a parallel not a parallel? Also, when is a verse not a verse?


       
      I originally asked the first of these questions on another forum, but as it has relevance to my synoptic stylometric
      analysis here <https://sites.google.com/site/inglisonmarcion/Home/the-synoptic-problem>
      https://sites.google.com/site/inglisonmarcion/Home/the-synoptic-problem , I would like to bring it up on synoptic.

      Mk 13:14a But when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, [spoken of by Daniel the prophet,] standing where it
      ought not, (let him that readeth understand,)

      Mt 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy
      place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

      Lk 21:20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.

      Mk 13:14b then let them that be in Judaea flee to the mountains:

      Mk 3:15 And let him that is on the housetop not go down into the house, neither enter therein, to take any thing out of
      his house:

      Mk 13:16 And let him that is in the field not turn back again for to take up his garment.

      Mt 24:16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:

      Mt 24:17 Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house:

      Mt 24:18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.

      Lk 21:21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out;
      and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto.

      In the above example it is clear that Mk 13:14a and Mt 24:15 are very close parallels. It is also clear that Mk 13:14b,
      Mt 24:16, and Lk 21:21a are close parallels. However, can Lk 21:20 in any way be called a parallel of Mk 13:14a/Mt
      24:15? It doesn't seem reasonable to me to call it a parallel; instead I see it as a rejection and replacement of Mk
      13:14a/Mt 24:15. So, as well as asking how other people view Lk 21:20 in particular, I would like to ask just how this
      situation is viewed generally, i.e. how far apart can two pieces of text in the synoptics be and still be regarded as
      parallels? Is there even any common 'standard,' because if not, doesn't this at least blur the edges of the synoptic
      sonderguts, double/triple traditions, etc?

      On a related issue, the above passages provide an example of another synoptic phenomenon that has puzzled me for a
      while, which is: Why are the verse divisions in the synoptics so inconsistent? For example, why does Mk 13:14 encompass
      in one verse what is two verses in Mt? My understanding is that Robert Estienne created our modern verse divisions
      around 1551, but if they were the work or (or at least under the control of) one person, then why are the synoptic
      verses not always divided up the same way? Does anyone know whether this is a 'hangover' from some characteristic of the
      Greek mss Estienne was used to seeing at the time, or perhaps something else? If so, is there anything that the verse
      divisions can tell us with regard to the synoptic problem itself?

      David Inglis, Lafayette, CA, 94549, USA

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